Querist :
Anonymous
(Querist) 22 October 2010
This query is : Resolved
My relative's ancestors have got a house thro' a will, in the year 1900 with a condition that the legal heirs can enjoy the property in lieu of performing certain charities every year.Some additions were added in the house subsequently and charities were also done. Now, after 110 years,the present legal heirs, as per the will of their mother, wants to sell the property and share among themselves leaving 6%of the sale proceeds for charity purpose. Is it legal?Experts kindly clarify and advice. IN ORDER TO CONTINUE THE PERFORMANCE OF CHARITIES,6%OF SALE PROCEEDS IS SET APART IN THE ALIENATION PROCESS.KINDLY CLARIFY ON THIS CONTEXT. I wish to keep this query as open.
Raja
(Expert) 22 October 2010
have to check the will, how it is written? otherwise cant say.
Kirti Kar Tripathi
(Expert) 22 October 2010
The will appears to be conditional as such i don't this any beneficiary under the will has right to sell it.
Sri Vijayan.A
(Expert) 22 October 2010
Full details about the WILL required
Rajeev kulshreshtha
(Expert) 23 October 2010
Yes the contents of WILL is important in this context.
s.subramanian
(Expert) 23 October 2010
If the will confers only the right of enjoyment and performance of charities, no alienation is possible.
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