Raja Sundarraman
09 January 2010 at 18:11
Respected Learned Friends , I request all of you to kindly have lookinto the following matter and give a solution.
The land to an extent of 33 Cents out of 250 Cents comprised in a Survey Number was sold out to X in the year 2005 by the original owner of the property.
Subsequently, in the year 2006, the original owners , knowingly or unknowingly , had executed the registered in my client's favour with respect to the entire extent of the said property and my client in turn has executed the registered sale deed in favour of Y . The Patta has also been issued to Y
In the year 2007 ,on coming to know the execution of the Sale deed in favour of X with respect to 33 Cents of the Land by the original owner, my client has purchased the same form X through his registered general power of attorney agent by a registered sale deed .
My the queries are:
1. Is it correct to say that the conveyance that has been passed on to Y is only with respect to the remaining 217 Cents out of 250 Cents ?
2. Is it coreect to say that in respect of the 33 Cents , my client is the owner , in view of the fact that only after the execution of the sale deed in favour of Y , my client has purchased the same ?
3. Is it possible to convey the title with respect to the 33 Cents in favour of Y without further payment of stamp duty , since Y had already paid stamp duty with respect to the entire extent of 250 Cents ? if yes , by which way / mode , it could be done?
Thanking you,
Raja Sundarraman .
Raja Sundarraman
02 January 2010 at 17:41
Respected Learned Sirs, my query is whether a registered Public Charitable Trust can be having an object aiming at carrying on business activities in the fields as specified in the deed for the purpose of funding the Corpus Fund of the Trust in order to met out its various charitable objects?
Raja Sundarraman
30 December 2009 at 14:49
Respected Learned friends , i am in process of drafting of an MOU the contents of which of a property management agreement in nature. I am of the POpinion that the nomenclature of the agreement /MOU is not in any way going to affect the rights and oblications of the parties thereto .The position being the the consideration received towards the rent of the property to be advanced by the property Manager to the Owner of the propertyby way of Gold in lieu of the payments.Hence, i name it MOU instead of Property Management Agreement. Please give your valuable opinion. With Regards.
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Gambling- Ingridients of
Respected Learned Friends, My Client , a property management Company ,is going to indroduce a Scheme under which the rent received towards the monthly rent received by them from the prospective tenant of the Flat will in turn be given to the owners/ their clients by way of Gold Coins once a year instead of cash payments. Whether this Scheme will be construed to be a kind of Gambling ?