karthik
16 February 2010 at 09:48
I have given my property for rent to a tenant for the past 20 years. He was doing some business in that space. During the last one year period he has not paid the rent. I was asking him to vacate the property since he was not paying the rent, but he did not do that till now. Suddenly yesterday my tenant was vacating the property and was planning to rent it to another person, I also got the news that he had taken the advance for renting the property. When I called my tenant he was not ready to talk properly. When I asked him what to vacate the property and give the keys, he talked very badly. What should I do in this case?
akshay dange
16 February 2010 at 08:43
hi , last time my query was nicely answered. thank you for that & god bless you!
i want to know if i am keeping paying guest in my house & allotted him a separate room.
what kind legal document i should prepare?
Thank you
akki
Anonymous
15 February 2010 at 20:32
Hi, there was dispute in me and my wife and petition is going on in the court. I want to buy some property on my name (FLAT). Would like to know if she can claim share in my newly owned flat (which will be on loan)?
Anonymous
15 February 2010 at 15:16
Sir,
I would like to seek your opinion on the following matter.
I have ancestral Property at Karnataka ie., Building constructed with Open Space around 5 guntas. The property is un-divided till date and the sole owner of the same was my father and his elder brother.
My father is having 4 childrens ie., One Male and Three Females. Now, all are major. All Three Females were married and myself is also married.
My Uncle (Eleder brother of my father) is having 7 childrens ie., 5 Male & 2 Female. Now, all are major and married.
Now, I intend to sale my part of Property ie., 50% of the sole property because of some emergency reasons. Prior to that I intend to divide the property equally but, because of some understandings, this is not materialized. I understood that unless and otherwise, the partition is made, it is not possible to sale the property belongs to me. In the situation, please advise me that whether should I sale property belongs to me to the prospective buyer (undivided property) who is well versed with the matter ?
I need your help to proceed further with. Please educate me with the steps to be taken.
Anonymous
15 February 2010 at 15:07
Dear Experts
I hve bought a resale flat. I have re paid sellers loan thorugh balace tranfer of my loan and obtained no due certificate. sellers bank has released the charge. I have submitted the same and requested the Society to give NOC to my bank. but the soc is denying to give NOC and not giving clear grounds. Please let me know remedies available to me.
Arati Gawde
15 February 2010 at 14:34
If we want to buy immovable property , then how much period's past title verification require ?
Anonymous
15 February 2010 at 12:27
Hi,
we have bought our house in 1999 and we had a terrace attached to our flat.It is a 3 floor building and we stays at 3rd floor with a attached terrace.We have paid rs.75,000 to the builder for the terrace and builder has given a document stating that terrace has been sold to us.Also in our sales agreement the terrace portion has been shown assigned in our room's map(signed by builder).There is only on entrance to terrace i,.e from our flat.But in the carpet area section of agreement details onterrace flat is not mentioned.
Q's:
1. Do we need to pay any property tax for this terrace?
2. Do we need to have some legal agreement prepared to be signed by builder or the document stating that this terrace has been sold(& belongs to us) is suffix.
Kindly suggest any legal process (affidavit)is required to be done to be on solid proof as per all ACT's.
Please revert.
Anonymous
15 February 2010 at 12:25
Hi,
we have bought our house in 1999 and we had a terrace attached to our flat.It is a 3 floor building and we stays at 3rd floor with a attached terrace.We have paid rs.75,000 to the builder for the flat and builder has given a document stating that terrace has been sold to us.Also in our sales agreement the terrace portion has been shown assigned in our room's map(signed by builder).There is only on entrance to terrace i,.e from our flat.But in the carpet area section of agreement details onterrace flat is not mentioned.
Q's:
1. Do we need to pay any property tax for this terrace?
2. Do we need to have some legal agreement prepared to be signed by builder or the document stating that this terrace has been sold(& belongs to us) is suffix.
Kindly suggest any legal process (affidavit)is required to be done to be on solid proof as per all ACT's.
Please revert.
Sanjivani
15 February 2010 at 11:37
Thanks to all.
but in 1989, all the chawls i.e. all compound is purchased by the builder named mr. shetty. but some problems taken place between all tenants and builder so the court has given stay that builder will not enter in that compound till the court order. meanwhile builder sold that land to m/s. chetan construction and my clients landlord was not come till 2003. in my clients chawl there are 29 tenants but 15 are already sold their room to the builder.
after that mean time some goondas came and broke the talas of sold rooms and given that rooms for leave and license. that time the landlord was absconded and suddenly from 2003 he came and saying that I am the landlord, he is not giving proper facilities, remaining tenants collects money from their pocket and clean the toilet, Water supply is also not proper.
suggest me,
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Succession
One Mr. X inherited the land to an extnet of 8893 sq.yds. from his father. The father of Mr. X died intestate and as on the death of father of "X", he is bachelor.
In the year 1984 "X" executed GPA document in favour of "Y" for 17,787 sq.yds. The remaining land which is got exeucted by "Y" is the land of sister of GPA holder.
While in the force of GPA document the GPA holder executed only one registered sale deed and 5 notarised doucments.
Mr. "X" came to know about the acts of GPA holder cancelled the GPA document in the year 1991 vide doct.No. 10/1991.
With wrong impression again the GPA holder created the GPA document vide doct.No. 11/1991 on the same day.
While in the force of GPA document the GPA holder executed 15 registered documents.
Again in the year 2003 Mr. "X" came to know the acts of the GPA holder and cancelled the GPA document. After cancellation of GPA document GPA holder executed another 15 documents.
For which Mr. "X" filed cheating case against GPA holder.
While things stood Mr. "X" died in the year 2009.
Now the point for consideration is whether Mr."X" is competent to execute GPA for entire land.
Or the children of "X" also share holders to the entire property which is inherited by the "X". Since the property is ancestral. As on the date of inheritence "X" is bachelor.
As on the date of execution of GPA document in the year 1984 "X" is having one daughter.
Now "X" is having three daughters and two sons.
Under which provision of law the children of "X" succeed their land.
OR the children of "X" is entitled for the land which executed by the GPA holder after cancellation of GPA document.
Plz. suggest clearly.