anish
17 May 2009 at 15:51
i entered a leave and license agreement for residential premises with a limited company for three years. there was a lock in period of three years on the part of company.therefore there is no mention of notice period. however in the previous agreement before this notice period was three years. the agreement has expired on 30 april 2009. on 30 april licensee said they will give possession on 31 may. my contention is that if they donot give possession on time then reasonable notice period of three months is applicable and they should give license fees for three months. what is legal status? if they donot renew agreement can i ask for compensation and insist for renewal at same terms? the company is in gujarat and is listed public co. having no protection under rent act.
kaushikphm
13 May 2009 at 14:38
Dear Sir,
My uncle,my sister and myself own a shop portion and my uncle has been receiving rent from the tenant and depositing in Joint account and not paying the arrears of property taxes which was raised by the concern authority. Now, it accumulates.
Please advice whether we can request the concerned authority to collect taxes by letter
kaushikphm
13 May 2009 at 14:01
Dear Sir,
We have a land in which part say 400 sq.feet was encroached by a person and there is a hut and he was taken EB connection.
Please advice us how to disconnect this EB connection legally.
Abhinay Kumar Shaw
12 May 2009 at 19:09
I have purchase a Flat in Howrah, West Bengal and issued a cheque in favour of the developer of Rs. 25000/- but, as the developer did'nt performe his promise properly, I have dishonoured the issued cheque.
I that case what the legal obligation could arise against me as well as the developer.
h wahi
12 May 2009 at 16:00
my father has a house in his name i am living there with my wife and 4 years daughter from last 10 years
now my father disowned me from the property and throwing us out from the house
in past we have ancestral property which my father sold and made this house at his name
i can do anything 2 save my self or not
or i have to leave the house as he disowned me and my family
Abdul Ravoof
12 May 2009 at 15:25
A muslim men died leaving his mother, wife and children ( male & female) . According Islamic sharia law, the mother is entitled 1/6th of son’s estate. Now how this mother can secure her entitlement because her son’s wife ( daughter in law) and associates are trying to neglect or keep away the mother’s rights. Is there any way through court or legally the mother can charge her 1/6th entitlement? Kindly reply.
Tipsy
11 May 2009 at 20:14
We have one Society of 11 Bldgs having 600 flats, there are two road between 11 bldgs , members are parking cars, one is private road given by builder and other is DP road , When Society is asking Parking charges from Car member, they says it is DP road and society has no right to ask, but Now major road repair has come , car member say society has to repair road even though it is DP road and all member will shell out equal charges,
what society has to do in future, we had ask member to pay Rs 5000 deposit and Rs 100 Charge per car, but they want free parking
Manikam
11 May 2009 at 18:36
Hi i am manikam from chennai. First of all i would like to thank you for all who have answered my earlier query..
I have some more question to be asked..
The father had 6 property .which is earned and owned by himself during his life time.
The father has 4 sons and 4 doughter respectivly.in 1962 he giften one of his property to 4 doughters as a settlement deed.and he nominated his wife as a guardian as the doughters are minor.moreover he specically mentioned that he dont have any rights to amend or cancell the same settlement deed in future.in this circumstances.
in 1966 he executed a WILL on which he cancelled the settlement deed executed in 1962.and he gave all the 6 property to his 4 sons ,includeing the one which is gifted to girls 1962.Both the 1962 settlement deed and 1966 will are registered document.and the father expired on 1975 and the mother expired on 1997 till no one filled a partition suit on the above said property.
Now my quetion is :
1) Is the settlement deed (of 1962), revokable or overided by the will executed in 1966 in favour of sons,by father who executed the settlement deed in favour of daughters.
please suggest .
2) In the eye of law .do the daughters have any limitation in year to fill a partition suit on settlemnt property .since it's been 46 years from 1962.
if yes please suggest me regarding this.
It would be much greatfull to you . if you suggest me a overall idea to proceed furhter in filling a partion suit of the settlement property.
Kamal sodhi
11 May 2009 at 11:08
There was the property of land owned by my grand father(HIG Flat)who died,then there were his 4 legal hires including my father who also died and we are his 4 legal hires including a daughter (my sister) who is married (apart from my mother).we all(including we 4 after our father's death & the other 2 hires of grandfather) transfered our property rights in favour of our aunt so that she can sell our property after conversion into freehold.After selling she says that if we need to buy our house from that money we need to make her co-owner otherwise we will have to pay the tax of 30% on that money(incase she is not the co-owner).pls guide us what to do?we need a urgent help!Incase we don't want to pay 30% tax on our own money & buy a house from that money, is it necessary to make my aunt co-owner if we don't wish to, as she is unmarried?plsssssssssssss help!!
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Residential Property
The house I stay is in the name of My husband, my self & my Mother in law. My husband has one brother & one sister. Kindly let me know that in any unforesaid circumstances can my brother in law & sister in law claim right on the property.My husband runs a family business which is in the name of my mother in law.
What is the procedure my taking my mother in laws name from my Residential house.
Thanks In Advance.