Anonymous
03 December 2011 at 16:11
I rented a property in September '10 on a rent of Rs. 27, 000. There was a clause that if I wish to continue there will be a 10% increase after 11 months. In Sept this year I was given a new contract to sign and I have been paying the increased amount.
My query is regarding a recent judgement by Supreme Court where it was specified that the landlord can not increase rent before three years? can I challenge this increase?
Thanks,
s.v.goplani
03 December 2011 at 15:58
Respected sir,
Our elders belongs to Sindh (Akhand bharat 1947 now in pakistan) & i have no agricultrual land. I am leaving in gujarat state - kutch district. whether it is compulsory to hold agricultural land from ancesters. how can i buy agricultrual land ? any remedies. please explain me. Jai bharat.
Anonymous
03 December 2011 at 12:56
Hi
I am planning to buy a old bunglow in Pune but owner said it is gunthewari . HDFC and ICICI bank refuse to offer loan whereas Cosmos bank is ready to offer loan. What document should i check with builder? Will it be problem to sell such property in future?
rgds,
Yogesh varma
Ph : 9998957901
Anonymous
03 December 2011 at 01:41
SIR/MADAM,
I HAVE A CLARIFICATION. A PERSON WAS REPORTED MISSING DURING THE PERIOD MAR 2010.THERE WAS A FLAT STANDING IN THE NAME OF THE MISSING PERSON. SUBSEQUENTLY DURING THE MONTH OF JUNE 2010 HIS FAMILY MEMBERS SOLD THE PROPERTY STANDING IN THE NAME OF PERSON REPORTED MISSING TILL DATE TO A THIRD PARTY DIRECTLY. PLEASE NOTE THE POINT TO BE NOTED IS THAT THE PROPERTY WAS NOT TRANSFERRED TO ANY OF THE FAMILY MEMBERS. BUT THE FAMILY MEMBERS JOINTLY HAVE EXECUTED A SALE DEED IN FAVOUR OF THE THIRD PARTY. INFACT THE THIRD PARTY HAD AVAILED A BANK LOAN TO PURCHASE THE PROPERTY. MY QUERY IS THAT WHETHER THIS SALE IS A VALID ONE. AT PRESENT THE PROPERTY IS TRANSFERRED TO THE THIRD PARTY BY WAY OF SALE DEED. SECONDLY WHAT AUTHORITY OR RIGHT HAVE THE FAMILY MEMBERS POSSESS TO SELL THE PROPERTY STANDING IN THE NAME OF THE MISSING PERSON DIRECTLY EVEN WITHOUT TRANSFERRING IT TO ANY OTHER FAMILY MEMBERS. I AM SON IN LAW OF THE MISSING PERSON. THE FAMILY MEMBERS HAVE FILED A FALSE 498A AGAINST ME AND HAVE STATED THAT IT IS BECAUSE OF ME THAT THE PERSON HAS GONE MISSING. NOW PLEASE HELP AND GUIDE ME AS TO WHETHER I CAN PROCEED AGAINST THEM LEGALLY SINCE THEY HAVE FALSELY FILED 498A SUBSEQUENTLY TO THE FAMILY MEMBERS HAVING REGISTERED A MAN MISSING COMPLAINT.
Anonymous
02 December 2011 at 23:33
Request:
Please advise me on points 8-17 below. I am looking for *honest* advice based on Indian law. Your advice will be greatly appreciated.
My background:
French National
Director of a tour company registered in Kerala.
Case history:
1. In 2009 I started proceedings to purchase 60 cents of farm land and house in Kollam district.
2. The contracts were signed by both parties, the money was given as cash by my agents to the seller, and the deeds and keys were handed over to my agents by the seller.
3. At the land registry office, the officer refused to register the land and property in my name – because of my foreign nationality.
4. I took up residence at the property and have been living here for over 2 years.
Current Situation:
5. I currently live at the property. I have made significant investments in upgrading the house and land.
6. Now given the lapse in time, I am aware that the original contacts are now terminated.
7. The property is still registered with the seller. The seller has continued to pay the land and house tax (as it is still registered in their name).
Advice required:
8. Legally, does the seller still own the house? (I have paid the seller and I have lived at the property with the knowledge of the seller for the last 2 years. But the property is still registered in the sellers name and the seller pays the land/house tax.)
9. Can I legally register the property in my name or in my company’s name (registered in India) with me as it’s director?
10. Can this property only be registered to an Indian national?
11. Can the sellers ask for more money now to draw up new contracts (in my or another Indian national name)? (Land prices have risen by 4-5 times in the past 2 years, since the start of the proceedings).
12. Can the seller legally ask me to leave the property? Will my original money be refunded? What about the investment I have already carried out to the property?
13. Can the seller sell the property to someone else? I have the original deeds – but can they get duplicates? What action can I take on this matter?
Options considered:
14. Do I do nothing? I can continue to stay at the property and use it as I see fit for as long as I like.
15. Do I pursue new contacts to register the property in my name (or an Indian partner’s name)?
16. Do I leave? Can I get the original money back that I paid to the seller? What about the investment I have carried out on the property? Will I need to compensate the seller as I have paid no rent or land tax in the last 2 years.
17. Do I negotiate a new lease agreement with the seller, so that the property remains in their name but I have use of the house and land. What are my options with this?
With kind regards
Anonymous
02 December 2011 at 20:32
hello sir, i want to know the validity of an unregistered developer agreement.I am the builder/Developer of the multistoried apartment project which is now complete.The developer/collaboration agreement has an attachment in the form of partition deed wherein the flat no's of respective share of landowner and builder are shown .Above developer agreement and partition deed says that "Once the project is complete both parties become exclusive owner of their respective share of flats and both the parties can sell their share of flat/s independently." The land owner has sold out his complete share without having the signature of builder/developer. My question now is:- 1. can i now sell my share of flats with my (developer/builder)signature in case the land owner is not willing to cooperate and sign. 2.if the collaboration agreement is not registered wud it be legitimate for me to sell my share of flats without the landowners signature.3.Can i challenge the selling of landowners share of flats on the ground that he had not obtained my signatures while making a sell.
Anonymous
02 December 2011 at 16:55
in the year 2000 i had purchased one site in which the khata nois entered as 196 instead of 195 but in the khata it is given as 195. so for correction of this sale deed what should we do please advice immeidately and whom should we approach as we have constructed the house already and when we were checking the documents we found this mistake. will it effect us in any way in future please advice at the earliest how to correct the last digit of the khata no
hello sir, i want to know the validity of an unregistered developer agreement.I am the builder/Developer of the multistoried apartment project which is now complete.The developer/collaboration agreement has an attachment in the form of partition deed wherein the flat no's of respective share of landowner and builder are shown .Above developer agreement and partition deed says that "Once the project is complete both parties become exclusive owner of their respective share of flats and both the parties can sell their share of flat/s independently." The land owner has sold out his complete share without having the signature of builder/developer. My question now is:- 1. can i now sell my share of flats with my (developer/builder)signature in case the land owner is not willing to cooperate and sign. 2.if the collaboration agreement is not registered wud it be legitimate for me to sell my share of flats without the landowners signature.3.Can i challenge the selling of landowners share of flats on the ground that he had not obtained my signatures while making a sell.
Hi Team,
My mother left my father before 15 years with the reason that he is regularly using to drink alcohol and everyday beaten my mother. My father made a lot of mental and physical harassment to my mother. My mother left my father to save our (Me and my two brothers)life from him. My father is in Tirunelveli District and we are in Delhi.
She is expecting that he will come and take her back but he never come did. Last year we came to know that my had married another women without divorcing my mother and he had a 5 year old son also.
And we came to know that he sold some property of my grand father to his elder brother and my mother's land (which is gifted for their marriage) without any intimation to us. And gave some land to lease for 8 years.
Kindly give me a suggestion that, is any right or possible to us to claim our grandfather's land and my mothers & what is the right of his second wife & son.
Treasure and trove
"X" is the owner of a house premises which is in dilapidated condition, having inherited the same from his ancestors. When he is removing thorny bushes, he found some old silver is found underneath the ground. Whether "X" can claim absolute rights over the silver found? Whether the government can claim ownership? If so, what is the procedure?