Querist :
Anonymous
(Querist) 21 December 2011
This query is : Resolved
I am purchasing a house, for which the vendor got possession from his father(Mr.X) through a gift deed in 2007. (Mr.X) married another woman after death of vendor's mother. Date of marriage is not known but the gift deed was executed after death of vendor's mother.
Mr.X has earned the property, is not ancestral. Mr.X's second wife has no children( He is 65 years old).
I am purchasing the house through a sale deed. Is there a possibility of any legal complications from Mr.X's second wife.
Devajyoti Barman
(Expert) 21 December 2011
There is no dispute or complications if you purchase the property from the Vendor. Moreover since the Mr X is signing the document , there would not be any remote possibility of dispute.
Raj Kumar Makkad
(Expert) 21 December 2011
As the property under sale was a self acquired property of X who is also becoming witness to the sale deed, had within his legal rights had gifted to his son beorn out of his first wife so there is no illegality and second wife of X has got no right, title or interest what so ever to challenge the gift or your sale-deed.
ajay sethi
(Expert) 21 December 2011
you can go ahead and purchase the property . we do not forsee any complications . property has been gifted to vendor by his father . i presume gift has been duly stamped and regsitered . once gift is accepted by vendor the gift is complete . vendor can sell the property
adv. rajeev ( rajoo )
(Expert) 21 December 2011
It is self acquired property, so he is gifted to his son. Then there is no problem to purchase the property
Querist :
Anonymous
(Querist) 22 December 2011
Thank you all for your opinion
prabhakar singh
(Expert) 22 December 2011
you are closed.okay!
Querist :
Anonymous
(Querist) 23 December 2011
ok Thank you
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