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shibu   06 December 2009 at 11:11

Copy right law and translation subtitles

Hello,
I need your advice on my site, that is basically a translation site, hold lakhs of sentences mostly used in English and corresponding translation in my local language (Arabic). I don’t store any name/place names or anything used in the movies or TV shows. It is only plain English sentence(can be called dialog with out any show names/character names though) and the translation for it. This is basically used as subtitle(caption) translations. Is it come under copyright?. Can the film houses sue my site for the sentences/dialog they use in their movies/shows?. I don't want a surprise at the end :).. thanks in advance please guide me.

Thanks, Shibu

Anonymous   06 December 2009 at 10:28

Consumer rights

At the time of selling a Plasma Telivision set, the dealer of a reputed company Verbaly explaind that the model, which he suggests is havig a newer/latest technology panel having a (NEO PDP) panel instead of the older Plasma panel.
The Set is covered under three years (03)warranty.
whereas on getting the delivery it was noticed that no where it was mentioned that it is a (NEO PDP) panel set. and the warranty card supplied along with the set is for one year only.
On making the complaint to the Dealer and the company they refused and did't responded save & except the company has admitted that it's a non NEO PDP set.
Can I compell the company to change the set with a NEO PDP model set? if yes how?

Anonymous   06 December 2009 at 10:12

Third party liability of an Insurance company

The Insurance company is denying its Third party liability to the accident victim, on the ground that the owner of the truck, causing the accident to the victim, had expired prior to issuing the Policy for the truck, thus the policy issued to the Truck becomes void.

Can the insurance company deny their Liability?

akash   06 December 2009 at 09:00

Defamation for baseless allegation

Whether the chairman of managing committe of co-op. hsg. society is authorised, to complaint on society's letter head, to the employer of one of the member of the society' making baseless allegation of 'bigamy', whereas, there is no actual complaint or suit is pending with the court/ police by anybody against the such member.( in the retaliation of member's genuine complaint with the competent authorities)

In such condition,how to react such member, against the chairman.Pl. advice.

Soma   06 December 2009 at 07:52

Written Argument in PWDVA

In a Domestic Violence case, in which I am appearing for the Respondents, I prepared Written Argument for and on the day fixed for interim hearing but the Ld. Magistrate refused to accept it. The Ld. Magistrate asked me "if you do not mention under which section of law you can submit written argument in interim hearing of PWDVA case, I will not accept it."
Whether there is no provision for written argument for interim hearing?
Can he refuse to accept?

anshul sangal   06 December 2009 at 07:46

Corporate law

Sir can you tell me to be corporate lawyer which acts we should study?

anshul sangal   06 December 2009 at 07:43

Leading case law

I needed Leading case law for ESI,Employee provident found and Payment of bonus act.Please help me its urgent

AMAN   06 December 2009 at 04:15

CAN PERSON BAILED AFTER PROVING OF OFFENCE U/S 468 IPC

HI,
MY QUERY IS THAT CAN A PERSON BE RELEASED ON BAIL AFTER THE COURT HAS ORDERED IMPRISONMENT IN THE FINAL JUDGEMENT OF CASE U/S 468 IPC

dr subodh kumar   06 December 2009 at 02:09

cheque bounce

Is the law different in case of bounce of recently issued cheque and bounce of a post dated cheque issued to the drawee long before(say 2 to 3 yrs) but presented within the valid 6 month period from the date on cheque?
If the law different then will bouncing of PDC attracts less punishment to the defaulter or case cannot be filed under IPC 138?
Pl let me know the legal implication of bouncing of a PDC issued long before.
Thanks

Member (Account Deleted)   06 December 2009 at 01:34

Query on Common Civil Procedure Code

As per our constitution ours is a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC.



Family laws are different to different religions. Once we the citizen of India abide by the constitution's preamble why didn't we have Common Civil Procedure Code?

Is Government itself violating Constitution's Preamble?



Please clarify