K.C.Suresh
28 November 2009 at 05:16
Dear friends,
Will any lawyer from Patna call me in 9446042920. It is a accademical issue. KC Suresh Advocate
Anonymous
28 November 2009 at 02:10
Hi,
I have purchased an agriculture(14.5 acre) land a few months ago. Among the mother documents, one of it says,
1. He(seller to me) purchased 21 cents from X (who was neighbour) thro' unregistered document dated back Jan-1974, worth about Rs 175.00. This 21 cents is part of 3.21 acre. The X guy kept the remaining land for his own purpose.
2. My seller was in possession for this 21 cents since 1974. On the same month of 1974 ,my seller applied for the name transfer to the revenue department.
3. The revenue department reviewed and approved. Then they merged the above 21 cents with his existing land. B'cas these lands are coming under the same survey number but different sub-division. For the proof the revenue department sent the mutation proceedings to my seller on 1977, which clearly states that my seller is the owner of this particular 21 cents.
4. I have an adangal record(possession record) since 1977 for every year till date.
Now here is the problem....
There is another guy (who is also a neighbour to this 21 cents land) now claiming (after I purchased that land) that he is the owner for the above 21 cents. I've asked him to show the document. I have checked that document. It's a registered document, executed by the X's wife and his children on 1976. B'cas X(the guy who sold to my seller) was died on 1975. But he doesn't have any possession records till date. The thing is that this guy(who is claiming the title for 21 cents now) and my seller were neighbours for more than 40 years.
Here is my question,
1. do you think I'm the title owner since I have the possession record with peaceful enjoyment without any problems for more than 12 years. I mean 'Adverse possession'.
2. The opposite party is asking me for the compromise in the sense that asking for money to give his rights. What do you think?
Thanks in advance.
-Raju Jagadeesan.
Anonymous
28 November 2009 at 02:07
Hi,
I have purchased an agriculture(14.5 acre) land a few months ago. Among the mother documents, one of it says,
1. He(seller to me) purchased 21 cents from X (who was neighbour) thro' unregistered document dated back Jan-1974, worth about Rs 175.00. This 21 cents is part of 3.21 acre. The X guy kept the remaining land for his own purpose.
2. My seller was in possession for this 21 cents since 1974. On the same month of 1974 ,my seller applied for the name transfer to the revenue department.
3. The revenue department reviewed and approved. Then they merged the above 21 cents with his existing land. B'cas these lands are coming under the same survey number but different sub-division. For the proof the revenue department sent the mutation proceedings to my seller on 1977, which clearly states that my seller is the owner of this particular 21 cents.
4. I have an adangal record(possession record) since 1977 for every year till date.
Now here is the problem....
There is another guy (who is also a neighbour to this 21 cents land) now claiming (after I purchased that land) that he is the owner for the above 21 cents. I've asked him to show the document. I have checked that document. It's a registered document, executed by the X's wife and his children on 1976. B'cas X(the guy who sold to my seller) was died on 1975. But he doesn't have any possession records till date. The thing is that this guy(who is claiming the title for 21 cents now) and my seller were neighbours for more than 40 years.
Here is my question,
1. do you think I'm the title owner since I have the possession record with peaceful enjoyment without any problems for more than 12 years. I mean 'Adverse possession'.
2. The opposite party is asking me for the compromise in the sense that asking for money to give his rights. What do you think?
Thanks in advance.
-Raju Jagadeesan.
meenakshi chauhan
28 November 2009 at 02:07
DDA has a scheme of conversion of lease hold property to freehold property, in the name of GPA holder. Is this mandatory to have agreement to sell, if the property sale is done on GPA basis? Can DDA do the conversion without taking the agreement to sell?
Anonymous
28 November 2009 at 02:05
Hi,
I have purchased an agriculture(14.5 acre) land a few months ago. Among the mother documents, one of it says,
1. He(seller to me) purchased 21 cents from X (who was neighbour) thro' unregistered document dated back Jan-1974, worth about Rs 175.00. This 21 cents is part of 3.21 acre. The X guy kept the remaining land for his own purpose.
2. My seller was in possession for this 21 cents since 1974. On the same month of 1974 ,my seller applied for the name transfer to the revenue department.
3. The revenue department reviewed and approved. Then they merged the above 21 cents with his existing land. B'cas these lands are coming under the same survey number but different sub-division. For the proof the revenue department sent the mutation proceedings to my seller on 1977, which clearly states that my seller is the owner of this particular 21 cents.
4. I have an adangal record(possession record) since 1977 for every year till date.
Now here is the problem....
There is another guy (who is also a neighbour to this 21 cents land) now claiming (after I purchased that land) that he is the owner for the above 21 cents. I've asked him to show the document. I have checked that document. It's a registered document, executed by the X's wife and his children on 1976. B'cas X(the guy who sold to my seller) was died on 1975. But he doesn't have any possession records till date. The thing is that this guy(who is claiming the title for 21 cents now) and my seller were neighbours for more than 40 years.
Here is my question,
1. do you think I'm the title owner since I have the possession record with peaceful enjoyment without any problems for more than 12 years. I mean 'Adverse possession'.
2. The opposite party is asking me for the compromise in the sense that asking for money to give his rights. What do you think?
Thanks in advance.
-Raju Jagadeesan.
Kumar Krishan Agarwal Advocate
28 November 2009 at 02:03
Dear Solicitor,
1. My mother has two younger sisters and four younger brothers. So actually seven children are owner here who have one ancestral shop 30 * 20 sq. foot area in posh market. My mother and two younger sisters want to sell the shares but no buyer has coming forward as the buyer want whole (seven) shares of the seven children before purchasing.
2. Four Brothers don't want to sell their shares to anybody. One brother has taking and doing trade business into the shop for so long. He has not been sharing any profit earnings from the sisters. [i.e taking undue advantage and profits from that shop.]
3. I didn't want o file a partition suit for recovery of the title partition of our shares, as it requires heavy court fees and long proceedings. This property is also not able for making individual partition among seven children.
4. Now what the alternatives are ?
a. How to dispose of this property and gets the buyer excluding four brothers shares so that he purchases our shares?
b. File a declaration and perpetual injunction suit so that all the brothers cannot earn from the property. and leave it as it is forever?
c. Property how dissolved without the interference of our four younger brothers ?
Will court will provide any alternative so that the property will be dissolved without the four brothers shares.
5. At last, I want anyway so that the property is to be dissolved or being restricted forever being used by any brother. whether it lay empty closed shop into the whole-life absolutely till death.
malashree
28 November 2009 at 00:27
In a partition suit case the defendants have made a forged Will and produced a photocopy of the same in the court. The said Will is unprobated/unregistered and the date mentioned is 1.8.1988. Please explain in details on what grounds the above said Will can be challenged in the court of law.
Member (Account Deleted)
28 November 2009 at 00:14
pls tell me;
can a husband ask to his wife to get out from the house,which he construct from his self aquired property?
how can wife defend herself?
nalni
malashree
28 November 2009 at 00:00
A few years ago govt. of india had allotted a 155.5 Sq.yds plot under East Pakistan Displaced Persons Scheme in Delhi. The property is still leasehold, however, the same was registered in the sub-registrar office accordingly. Please clarify in detail the meaning of leasehold property. Secondly, what is the meaning of conveyance deed and how it can be made for a particular property.
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Section 32 & 33 of Disability Act 1995
D/Frens,
Pliz read the Section 32 & 33 of Disability Act 1995:
Section 32 of the PWD Act 1995, it dictates that every appropriate Govt such as state Govt. shall identify jobs/services in its establishments for purview of 3% reservation for persons with disability.
Section 33 dictates that-
" Every appropriate Government shall appoint in every establishment such percentage of vacancies not less than three per cent. for persons or class of persons with disability of which one per cent. each shall be reserved for persons suffering from-
(i) Blindness or low vision;
(ii) Bearing impairment;
(iii) Loco motor disability or cerebral palsy, in the posts identified for each disability:
Provided that the appropriate Government may, having regard to the type of work carried on in any department or establishment, by notification subject to such conditions, if any, as may be specified in such notification, exempt any establishment from the provisions of this section."
My query Now Is....????????
-----------------------------
Q. Suppose, State Govt. has identified Jobs/Services in its establishment by constituting an expert committee as per mandate of section 32 of the PWD Act 1995. But has excluded certain posts from the purview of 3% reservation due to certain valid reasons, which are however identified by the Ministry of Social Justice Govt. of India.
Now, Is it compulsary for the State Govt. to sought necessary permission for exemption from Ministry of Social Justice & Empower, Govt. of India ? or no such permission is necessary for exemption ?
Please, reply its urgent !!!
Mr.Oibato
oibato@yahoo.co.in