in sale deed of a shop, seller puts a condition that purchasor cannot transfer by way of sale deed such shop unless an apportunity is being given to him to repurchase the same. Is this condition is legal one? can a seller put such kind of condition in sale deed?
Dear Experts of the Forum,
I have a typical problem.In a property case i have Injunction order.Now third party claims right over the part of the property ,Which is under his occupation( His claim is this land is Part of Sy No.Y).
Fact is this particular land has a Sy no X, which is confirmed by the AD,Survey & land records, on my request/petition for Survey of Land.But this third party claims this land is in Sy no Y, and refused attend the survey under took by AD,Survey & land records;the District Survey head. and he filed a Caveat against me, claiming this land is in Sy no.Y, in spite of decision by the Ad,Survey & land records.How to tackle this problem , please guide me.
Thanking you ALL.
my client filed a civil suit in 2006 against the O.P. for illegally constructing his boundary wall against the road side, thus encroaching the public road, and narrowing the public lane...after sum days o.p approached my client for an outside court oral settlement and assured that he wont do this again, and on such amicable settlement my client withdrew the said suit....in 2012 the o.p with an ill intention again started the illegal construction.. can a suit again be filled with the same cause of action there were 20 ??? or there is sum other remedy? earliernos of petitioners but nw there are 25 petitioners, can this be a cause?
plz advice
Amrit Kaur
12 March 2013 at 14:45
My father expired in 1998. My mother is a bed patient, me and my younger sister is looking after her. We have a brother but he don't look after my mother. Till now my mother was managing her medical expenses with the rent of one shop. My mother's left leg got fractured in Sep 2012 and my mother starting living with myself, in her absence my brother has taken the shop and now he is not giving the shop or even rent to my mother for her expenses. As the shop is my father's name. Kindly advise.
Jyothiswaroop
12 March 2013 at 13:58
Dear Madams/Sirs,
My father has been taking credit card loans, other personal loans etc without the knowledge of my mother or me or anybody else in our family. Now we keep getting calls from lawyers regarding suits for these loans.
I wanted to know whether I, his son, am liable for his credit card debt or any personal loans after his death.
Please note that since my father hasn't made any property, I will not be inheriting even a penny from him.
Kindly advise.
Hi ..
My father bought adjacent land of my Gran-father's house(grand fathers house is now under the name of my father)..
Adjacent land owner (party 1) is the fist son of his father he has the right for that land by property share agreement.
Before he dies, He had told his wife that sell that to only my father. We registered that land with his wife legally.
As it is a Native property of my grand father we do check the patta of party 1.
Now the problem is the son of next younger brother of party1 show one patta in his father name for that property.
It has been transfered to that guy before 20 yrs with no cause.
Here we have hole in 3 thing
1. we canot get the file of the patt which is held by the opposition party. where to get this?
2. The patta of the party1 has no entry in the reginal office. there is no reasonable transger request of anything. But the signature and everything is correct only.
3. We have but house by joining both our property and the property in issue.
How to resolve this..
Pradeep Kumar
12 March 2013 at 11:59
We have a case where the deceased have left property behind him with will in the name of his spouse which is not registered. It is on simple paper. Basis the said will the spouse got her name mutated in he records of the Nazul, Bhopal.
There are three sons of the deceased and now there is dispute among them.
Pls advice that the spouse of the deceased can be considered a sole owner or we need to ask some other docs to establish the right over the property.
I am a house wife, who had applied for a MIG flat in a housing society in a mass housing project in a joint venture between state and private party in 2008 and was allotted a flat .
It was to be delivered in 2010, but the project got delayed.
I had paid 95% of consideration money by October,2009.
In January 2013 I inquired about the possible date of hand over of possession, and subsequent to telephonic discussion the deputy manger of the project sent me an email on 30.01.2013 asking me to deposit the balance payment.
I made the demand drafts and sent the same on 02.02.2013,i.e., within 2 working days.
On 02.03.2013, I have received a letter dated 21.02.2013 wherein the housing people have returned the said draft stating that the said allotment "now stands cancelled due to late payment of last installment."
What shall I do now- specific performance, writ petition or approach consumer forum or please suggest.
I have sent two notices to the organization.
narasimham v v
12 March 2013 at 09:31
govt of india has appointed district magistrate as arbitrator to finalaise the arbitration petitios received from land loosers those who lost their land by aqusition for widningthe nh5.where as instead of district magistrate (district collector)has delegated his powers to joint collector to enquiry into the matter and put up his opnion to finalaise the matter.IS IT CORRECT TO DELEGATE POWERS WITH OUT ANY PRIOR CONCURRANCE OF THE GOVT .IS THE AWARD PASSED BY THE DISTRICT COOLECTOR IS VAILD CAN WE REPORT THE MATTER TO THE CHAIRMAN NHAI OR WE HAVE TO CHALLANGE THE ORDER IN THE COURT OF LAW WHAT IS THE PORPER ACTION TO TAKE.PLADVISE ME
Reasons
In case a case is dismissed on account of maintainability, is Judge bound to give detailed reasons for such dismissal or not?