Dear Learned Seniors!
I'd like to know
1. whether a Hind religious trust could be formed only with that of corpus fund?
2. What is the maximum number of trustees a religious trust could have for its functions.
3. Where 15 individuals could become trustees?
Kindly help me at the earliest..
Thanks in advance!
Anonymous
14 September 2011 at 11:13
My husband has purchased some land at his native place out of his salary income during 1995. We have converted some potion og the land in to DC conversion and has built a small house there. In that house our in laws my husbands brother and his family is also residing with our permission. Whenever we visit the village we use to stay in that house. Consequent to my brothers marriage slowly misunderstading with our other family members took place and many a times it hurted us also. So we decided to take our share in the ancisters property even though our in laws were ready to give partition our brother in law was not agreeing for it. He demanded for the share in the property which we have purchased and also in the house constructed by us in the village. Here i wish to confirm you that we have not taken any bank loan for purchase or construction instead we have spent the money out of our savings earned by salary. We both of us are living in bangalore separately and we both are working in a government organisation. My husband has declared his self acquired property in his asset and liability statement at his office. This is the only evidence along with the sale deeds of the property. Hence is there any way to prove for the self acquired property in the court by us.
Anonymous
13 September 2011 at 22:48
Sir,
If someone having registered partnership firm and we new partner take it over and get resignation from all current partner and make an agreement on 1000 Rs Stamp and again make new partner's entry in Form-G Of Registrar of Firms, then will it be require to make a land dastavej to enter our name in 7/12, 8-A and No-6? Is it compulsary to do a land dastavej to be 100% owner of partnership firm?
Land is on the name of partnership firm.
Please reply,
Amit Sharma
13 September 2011 at 22:36
Greetings!
We own a property in my mother's name from last 36 Years but we never resided in same even for a single day and same has been given on rent to various tenants till date without rent deed.
Apart from registry in mother's name, Electricity bill and Water bill of that house comes in my Mom's name only.
But as we have never resided there, we have all documents/evidences pertaining to other property, where we have been residing.
Problem is that my wife has claimed that property(Where we never resided) as my parental house.
Kindly guide me how to refute her statement by enlightening on the meaning and facts of my case with regards to 'Parental House'
Thanks
kunal
13 September 2011 at 22:27
my uncle(mother's brother) has no child and i am staying with them form the last 30years. They have the property which in in the name of my aunt(uncle's wife) now after my uncle's death my aunt made a registered will in my name. Can my aunt's brothers or sisters or any other person challenge the will.
Anonymous
13 September 2011 at 22:15
Dear Experts
What is the Legal Validity of Unregistered Agreement for Sale ?
bishal shaw
13 September 2011 at 18:35
have sublease hold land on which three stories building build.It is 3cootah land with 3sub lessee. we took sublease from our lessee. and lessor provided the lease of land to lessee.
on this land we constructed house ( under sub lease ).
the property taken comes in the name of lessee. our name was not mention in the propety tax bill. this is tekka tennay land.THE FIRST LAND LORD WAS JAMIDAR/ .
i wanted to know that:
1.CAN I TRANSFER PROPERTY TAX BILL IN MY NAME?
2.SHOULD I GO FOR TEKKA TENNAY?
3.IN THE AGREEMENT Deed IT WAS MENTION THAT WE ARE NOT THE OWNER OF LAND.BUT CONSTRUCTION DONE ON THE LAND IS OURS.
4.this land propety tax is due?can we get waiver under west bengal govt.( kolkata municipal corporation)
5. can we ever be the real owner of this property?
Anonymous
13 September 2011 at 18:13
I have a question with regard to buying of a propery.In case the builder gets into normal (not registered)agreement to sell a property to person-A & registers the propertly to person-B before agreement expires, what would be the consequence ? Will person-B have full rights as its regisered to him/her ? If so,what can person-A do ? Will he/she have any righs to get the property in any case ?
Parvinder Singh
13 September 2011 at 18:11
Dear Sir/Mam,
I have a property at Ludhiana which was on my mother name. My mother has been expired in 1999. After Eleven year ago in 2010 January my dad has go to the patwari and entered the four names on the FARD ,
on name - My dad , my two sisters and also me.
Kindly suggest me is it possible when we sold the property , we are equally partners in that property?
My dad not listen to me , he told that sold the property and divided it into four.
i am not agree with them because it is not easy to purchase a property in 8.79 lacs in Ludhiana Location.
Kindly Help me on this matter!!!!!!!!!
What can i do?
With Regards
Parvinder
Reverse mortagage
Respected experts,
Can a senior citizen receive a lump sum amount in hand from the bank in case of reverse mortgage ?