sandeep Upadhyay
30 December 2011 at 11:44
Dear all experts
I want to give my house on a rent.The location is in Gujarat.I want to know that leave & licence agreement is legal agreement for Gujarat state?If I am going to give my house on a rent to company for guest house what is the best procedure for documenation?
Somebody told me that leave & Licience agreement is not applicable in gujarat state & not useful for legal battle?Is it correct?
Earlier I have given my house on a rent without any documentation & face very trouble.
At present I am in financial problem & must necessary to creat extra income source for loan payment.
Request to give best guidelne which can helpfull to me for regular income with protection of my property
Thanks to all
sandip
Anonymous
30 December 2011 at 11:28
There was a widow who was living in a room on tenancy basis in Thane District, Maharashtra. She had tenancy rights in her name. She had dispute with landlord on certain issue and court case is going on along with other tenants. She had only a married daughter as her child. The daughter is returned back after 3 months of her marriage in April 2009 due to dispute with her husband and filed divorce case in August 2010. After marriage daughter has not removed her name from the ration card of Mother. Before one month i.e. on 11.11.2011 Mother had died and daughter is living alone in the said room. Now landlord is insisting daughter to vacant the room as she is married and holder of tenancy right is dead. Can landlord do so? What are rights of daughter in the above property? Can daughter live in the room till she want and get the right transferred in her name legally without paying anything to landlord as their financial position is very serious?
Anonymous
30 December 2011 at 09:51
whether the letter of administration can be filed without will, if so under which provision of the afore said Act provide.
Anonymous
30 December 2011 at 07:50
RESPECTED EXPERTS, WHAT IS THE LEGAL POSITION OF LEAVE AND LICENSE AGREEMENTS IN ANDHRA PRADESH? MY LAND LORD IS HAVING A READY MADE LEAVE AND LICENSE AGREEMENT WITH REGARD TO THE SHOP I WANT TO HIRE FROM HIM. HE IS NOT WILLING TO EXECUTE A REGULAR LEASE DEED OR ANY REGISTERED LEASE DEED. WHAT SHALL I DO, I HAVE TO TAKE HIS SHOP ON RENT TO RUN MY BUSINESS. ALL THE CONDITIONS EXCEDPT FEW ARE JUST LIKE LEASE CONDITIONS AND IT IS ME WHO HAS TO PAY THE REGISTRATION CHARGES OF THE LEASE DEED BUT HE IS NOT AGREEABLE TO EXECUTING LEASE DEED. PLEASE ENLIGHTEN ME AS TO WHAT SHOULD I DO? WILL I HAVE ANY LEASE RIGHTS AND THE SUPPORT OF RENT CONTROL LAWS IF I EXECUTE THE LEAVE & LICENSE AGREEMENT? PLEASE HELP.
Anonymous
30 December 2011 at 07:13
Dear Experts,
"A" filed a suit against "B" wherein "A" appionted "X" as his Advocate. in said case "X" made many serious alligations against "B". some of the alligations are defematory too. After that the matter settled out of court and a consent trems was diled by both the parties.
After some times "B" fled a similer type of suit against "C" wherein "B" appointed the same advocate "X" as his lawyer. the said "X" made lamost similer types of allegations against "C" which he made against "B" in previous case.
now after about a year "C" came to know about the details of case filed by "A" against "B" and the appearance of the said advocate "X" against "B".
is there any remedy available for "C"? is there any judgment/order available for "C"? Pl. provide me citations at the earliest. i need it urgently.
Thanks in Advance.
Regards.
saiyad
30 December 2011 at 05:38
Dear sir,
i would want your valuable advice for this problem:
my father's elder brother's wife has some self acquired piece of land. she does not have any children of her own i.e. she does not have any legal heirs.
now she wants to gift [hiba] that piece of land to my father's children i.e. me and my sister.
can this hiba be done in accordance to the muslim personal law in the indian constitution?
regards
saiyad
Manoj
29 December 2011 at 23:18
A land is purchased by a secretary/chairman of a proposed society in the year 1976. Then the same promoters/secretary formed a society in the same name except removing the word “proposed” from the name and get is registered in the year 2003. Then proposed society execute a deed of assignment without consideration in favour of Society that is registered with the same name except the word proposed
1) Is the deed of assignment valid.
2) Can a proposed society purchase land in this manner and then register itself with the same name in Gujarat Co-op. Societies Act. Then the proposed society execute deed of assignment without consideration. Does the registered society in whose favour such assignment is made a legal owner
3) residential units are constructed on this land, can purchase of this land be considered as lawfully does it make the purchaser a legal owner.
4) what title does the purchaser get in this case.
venu
29 December 2011 at 20:16
Request to experts.
Sir,i would be pleased to hear your comments.
She is my cousin.
She is born with her elder brother,one elder sister & one younger sister.
Her father died of cardiac arrest last month with out writing a TESTATE.
Her mother is alive & she wants to bequeath the entire property (MOVABLE & IMMOVABLE INCLUDING CASH BALANCE) to her son.
Now my cousin continues the rest.
----------------------------------
Coming to my brother ,he has two wives.
First wife left him after eight years of marriage along with her lone daughter to her parents place.
After lot of persuasion to his first wife,
he married another woman as his second wife without taking divorce from first wife.
Can the first wife have any claim in the our family property.
Now coming to the point,can we sisters have any claim over a portion of our father property.
We don't like to waste our time,dragging our brother & mother to court,if our claim doesn't hold any legal backing.
Here both my brother & mother are opposed to give us any share.
Since my father has not made any TESTATE before his death,do we sisters have any right to approach the court.
Please advise us on this regard for which I would be highly obliged.
With regards.
Anonymous
29 December 2011 at 19:32
Respected Experts,
Here is the situation..
Mr.X owns a house. Mr.Y has no power of attorney for this house. Can Mr.Y instigate Mr.Z to stay at Mr.X's house rent free? The property owner(Mr.X) does not benefit however, Mr.Y utilizes the trade services of Mr.Z (free in exchange for rent) for Mr.Y's home and business.
Can a civil and/or criminal case be filed for this against both Mr.Y and Mr.Z?
Your opinion please.
Thanks.
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