sanjay
28 November 2009 at 11:51
Dear Sir,
What is Non Judicial Stamp paper value for affidavit (providing financial assistance) in mp for LPG Gas distributorship apllication form.
mayank jain
28 November 2009 at 10:32
We supplied material to a Govt Corporation. The corporation had not cleared our account. We filed Suit and got decree against the Corporation.
During execution of degree , orders were issued to attach Cash/Credit bank account of Corporation which has a LIMIT of 3.0 Crores. The bank did not honour the degree as the corporation has already overdrawn Rs. 17 Lacs from account. Corporation is still doing transaction in the account.
Please let us know if Bank can be forced to pay us our amount or bank can be asked to stop clearing the corporations outward cheques and as soon as the Overdraft is cleared they should make our payments. If so please quote some authority.
Thanking You
S. SAILAKSHMI
28 November 2009 at 07:27
Whatis a Succession Certificate? Can a succession certificate is useful for transfer of ownership between disputed heirs?
mahendrakumar
28 November 2009 at 07:07
what are the documents to be filed in a consumer case at district forum?
i.e alogn with the complaint ,is required to submit the orignal(receipts/documents etc) or only xerox copies? or self attested copies?
How many copies of complaints need be submitted?
Anonymous
28 November 2009 at 05:45
D/Frens,
Pliz read the Section 32 & 33 of Disability Act 1995:
Section 32 of the PWD Act 1995, it dictates that every appropriate Govt such as state Govt. shall identify jobs/services in its establishments for purview of 3% reservation for persons with disability.
Section 33 dictates that-
" Every appropriate Government shall appoint in every establishment such percentage of vacancies not less than three per cent. for persons or class of persons with disability of which one per cent. each shall be reserved for persons suffering from-
(i) Blindness or low vision;
(ii) Bearing impairment;
(iii) Loco motor disability or cerebral palsy, in the posts identified for each disability:
Provided that the appropriate Government may, having regard to the type of work carried on in any department or establishment, by notification subject to such conditions, if any, as may be specified in such notification, exempt any establishment from the provisions of this section."
My query Now Is....????????
-----------------------------
Q. Suppose, State Govt. has identified Jobs/Services in its establishment by constituting an expert committee as per mandate of section 32 of the PWD Act 1995. But has excluded certain posts from the purview of 3% reservation due to certain valid reasons, which are however identified by the Ministry of Social Justice Govt. of India.
Now, Is it compulsary for the State Govt. to sought necessary permission for exemption from Ministry of Social Justice & Empower, Govt. of India ? or no such permission is necessary for exemption ?
Please, reply its urgent !!!
Mr.Oibato
oibato@yahoo.co.in
K.C.Suresh
28 November 2009 at 05:16
Dear friends,
Will any lawyer from Patna call me in 9446042920. It is a accademical issue. KC Suresh Advocate
Anonymous
28 November 2009 at 02:10
Hi,
I have purchased an agriculture(14.5 acre) land a few months ago. Among the mother documents, one of it says,
1. He(seller to me) purchased 21 cents from X (who was neighbour) thro' unregistered document dated back Jan-1974, worth about Rs 175.00. This 21 cents is part of 3.21 acre. The X guy kept the remaining land for his own purpose.
2. My seller was in possession for this 21 cents since 1974. On the same month of 1974 ,my seller applied for the name transfer to the revenue department.
3. The revenue department reviewed and approved. Then they merged the above 21 cents with his existing land. B'cas these lands are coming under the same survey number but different sub-division. For the proof the revenue department sent the mutation proceedings to my seller on 1977, which clearly states that my seller is the owner of this particular 21 cents.
4. I have an adangal record(possession record) since 1977 for every year till date.
Now here is the problem....
There is another guy (who is also a neighbour to this 21 cents land) now claiming (after I purchased that land) that he is the owner for the above 21 cents. I've asked him to show the document. I have checked that document. It's a registered document, executed by the X's wife and his children on 1976. B'cas X(the guy who sold to my seller) was died on 1975. But he doesn't have any possession records till date. The thing is that this guy(who is claiming the title for 21 cents now) and my seller were neighbours for more than 40 years.
Here is my question,
1. do you think I'm the title owner since I have the possession record with peaceful enjoyment without any problems for more than 12 years. I mean 'Adverse possession'.
2. The opposite party is asking me for the compromise in the sense that asking for money to give his rights. What do you think?
Thanks in advance.
-Raju Jagadeesan.
Anonymous
28 November 2009 at 02:07
Hi,
I have purchased an agriculture(14.5 acre) land a few months ago. Among the mother documents, one of it says,
1. He(seller to me) purchased 21 cents from X (who was neighbour) thro' unregistered document dated back Jan-1974, worth about Rs 175.00. This 21 cents is part of 3.21 acre. The X guy kept the remaining land for his own purpose.
2. My seller was in possession for this 21 cents since 1974. On the same month of 1974 ,my seller applied for the name transfer to the revenue department.
3. The revenue department reviewed and approved. Then they merged the above 21 cents with his existing land. B'cas these lands are coming under the same survey number but different sub-division. For the proof the revenue department sent the mutation proceedings to my seller on 1977, which clearly states that my seller is the owner of this particular 21 cents.
4. I have an adangal record(possession record) since 1977 for every year till date.
Now here is the problem....
There is another guy (who is also a neighbour to this 21 cents land) now claiming (after I purchased that land) that he is the owner for the above 21 cents. I've asked him to show the document. I have checked that document. It's a registered document, executed by the X's wife and his children on 1976. B'cas X(the guy who sold to my seller) was died on 1975. But he doesn't have any possession records till date. The thing is that this guy(who is claiming the title for 21 cents now) and my seller were neighbours for more than 40 years.
Here is my question,
1. do you think I'm the title owner since I have the possession record with peaceful enjoyment without any problems for more than 12 years. I mean 'Adverse possession'.
2. The opposite party is asking me for the compromise in the sense that asking for money to give his rights. What do you think?
Thanks in advance.
-Raju Jagadeesan.
meenakshi chauhan
28 November 2009 at 02:07
DDA has a scheme of conversion of lease hold property to freehold property, in the name of GPA holder. Is this mandatory to have agreement to sell, if the property sale is done on GPA basis? Can DDA do the conversion without taking the agreement to sell?
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Any case related to rent act
Respected all,
Kindly provide me any case along with all facts and details relating to rent act, I need to present same in classroom.
Regards,
Gargi