hage nibo
20 April 2009 at 08:05
What does"(amendment)'Act'" really mean in:
eg: CPC (46 of 1999), (22 of 2002)
Central sale tax Act,1956(74 of 2004)etc.
What meaning do 46,22,74 carry here?
anshul sangal
19 April 2009 at 22:29
Sir can you define the doctrine of colorable legislation?
A Truthseeker
19 April 2009 at 22:26
selling ones body is looked down upon though it is in practice since time immemorial. but generally one sells body when in need of money. intellectuals are always ready to sell info and intellect whether or not he is in need. who is better?
AYYALASOMAYAJULA MURALI
19 April 2009 at 19:41
whether the bonded labor in any department of Government of India has counter for service from the date of appointment who recruited directed 1981 postal class 3 at Visakhaptanm RMS V division class3 quota and from employment exchange and suffered a lot
victimized for 8 years served as bonded labor in the Indian postal department as class 3 murali postal assistant Visakhpatnam 9290016534 email id : murali_viswanarh@rediffmail.com
requested every body,s help in this regard
sanjay batra
19 April 2009 at 19:12
Dear Sir
In case lot of workman (>100) need to be transferred from subsidiary company to Parent Company( both are commercial estbalishment not covered under factory act) what all formalities do we need to comply( no standing order is deposited at labour dept before by both companies) and in new appointment letter/ transfer letter what clause is to be written (the terms of employement/benefit remains the same) so that contnuity of benefit of service say in ESI/ Gratuity is not effected
Regards
Sanjay Batra
+9811230040
Apurva Kumar
19 April 2009 at 18:48
Hello!
One of my frnd ask me a vry peculier question that can he file a writ or ny such remedy as his date of CLAT-09 and IAS-09 is clashing on the same date ie.17th of may09 can he file for ny remedy at Delhi so that he may appear for both the exam if ny of date is extended or shifted as he resides there ny clue?
Regards!
Apurva Kr!
Ravi Mishra
19 April 2009 at 14:36
India is having 'DTAA' agreement with UAE, Dubai.
1. In case a UAE / Dubai based NRI opens a NRO account with a Bank in India, at what rate 'TDS' is to be deducted on interest income earned?
2.Name of countries with whom India has "DTAA" agreement.
3. Rate of 'TDS' under 'DTAA' with these countries
VINAYAK MUNGI
19 April 2009 at 14:19
THE DISALLOWED AMOUNT IN 40A(3) GENERATES BLACK MONEY IF THE CASH HAS BEEN ENTERED IN THE BOOKS OF ACCOUNT OF THE PAYEE WHO IS IT ASSESSE
NO LAW IS THERE TO STATE THAT THE DISALLOWED AMOUNT SHOULD NOT BE ADDEDTO THE PROFITS OF THE FIRM/PARTNER/PROPRIETOR
IF A FIRM X HAS INCURED AN EXPENDITURE OF MORE THAN THE LIMIT SPECIFIED AT A UNDER 40A(3) OF ANY PERIOD AFTER THE ACT WAS ENACTED . THE EXPENDITURE IS INCURED FOR PURCHASE OFF RAW MATERIAL FOR PRODUCTION.
THE PAYMENT IS MADE TO A FIRM Y WHO IS AN INCOME TAX ASSESSEE. ENTERS THE CASH
IN HIS BOOKS OF ACCOUNT
THE ASSESING OFFICIER DIALLOWS THE EXPENDITURE AND ADD TO THE INCOME OF THE
FIRM AFTER PAYMENT OF THE ADDED INCOME TAX . ADDS THE PROFIT AFTER TAX TO THE
PARTNER/PROPRIEETOR
NOW THE PROFIT OF THE PARTNER/PROP
IS A BLACK MONEY BECAUSE FIRM Y HAS ENTERED THE MONEY IN THE BOOKS OF ACCOUNT
AND WHICH IS THE SOURCE THE A.O HAS GRANTED THE MONEY(IN THE FORM OF DIALLOWANCE)
IF FIRM Y HAD NOT ENTERED IN THE BOOKS OF ACCOUNT THEN THERE IS NO BLACK MONEY GENERATED
AS THE DISALLOWNCE IS MADE ONE SIDED
WITHOUT VERIFICATION ON THE OTHER SIDE THAT IS THE PAYEE .BLACK MONEY (THE MONEY NOT ENTERED IN BOOKS OF ACCOUNT)IS GENERATED
THE PURPOSE OF THE LAW IS TO BLOCK THE BLACK MONEY GENERATED HOWEVER THE WRONG IMPLEMENTATION CREATES THE BLACK MONEY HENCE THE VIRUS
THE GENERATION OF BLACK MONEY CAN BE BLOCKED IF THE IMPLEMENTATION OF DISSALLOWNCE UNDER 40A(3) IS GURANTEED IF AND AND ONLY IF THE A.O HAS THE PROOF FROM THE PAYEE
THE ABOVE SAID CAN BE IMPLEMENTED IF POINT NO 5 IN CBDT CICULAR 22O OF 1977 IS
MANDATERY TO THE ASSESSE IN CASE IF HE WANTS THE ALLOWANCE MADE BY THE A.O FOR THE EXPENTITURE HE HAS PAID IN CASH
VINAYAK MUNGI
meson_services@yahoo.com
VINAYAK MUNGI
19 April 2009 at 14:15
THE DISALLOWED AMOUNT IN 40A(3) GENERATES BLACK MONEY IF THE CASH HAS BEEN ENTERED IN THE BOOKS OF ACCOUNT OF THE PAYEE WHO IS IT ASSESSE
NO LAW IS THERE TO STATE THAT THE DISALLOWED AMOUNT SHOULD NOT BE ADDEDTO THE PROFITS OF THE FIRM/PARTNER/PROPRIETOR
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