Anonymous
07 September 2018 at 13:46
The award was declared on 16th of dec 2013 calculated on the basis of the year 1985. The land was taken into possession on 14th of Jan 2014. Do i have any strong point to litigate?
Anonymous
07 September 2018 at 13:41
I have a case in high court WP 7134/2014. It is in a pre- admission status. I think the case is not going any where. We had court dates in 2016 but nothing happened. When we asked our lawyer he said it will take some time . I dont understand the reason for delay. Kindly help. We are litigating land aquisition case since 1985.
A. Narasa Raju
07 September 2018 at 12:42
We have purchased plot with installment in a grampunchayat layout. We have paid the installments since 1996 and got registered by 2003. Now the irrigation Dept and hmda is saying that it is under FTL. We are not able to sell the property but it was bought with hard earned money by poor people like us. We have requested the the revenue Dept to conclude on presence of any govt land in that survey no or adjusent survey no. The revenue department has did the survey and confirmed that there is no govt, shikkam land there. How to get the FTL demarkation from our site. We have requested irrigation Dept several times to take action as per revenue Dept recommendation. Requested hmda also. But things are not moving. PL suggest how to deal with the current situation to remove FTL from our plot.
Charmaine Lim
07 September 2018 at 11:07
Hi. I need you help. please help me in doing a board resolution.
I need a board resolution in:
1. hiring a local lawyer,
2. hiring a family to stay in a vacant lot,
3. and board resolution for a monthly meeting.
Sandeep
07 September 2018 at 10:57
Hi Sir,
One of my friend purchased a residential property in Noida in July 2013 through a registered sale deed in the name of his pvt ltd co (ABC Pvt Ltd). The same property was sold by a Pvt Ltd co (XYZ Pvt Ltd) to an individual in Jan 2011 through registered GPA/Agreement to Sell.
In Jul 2013 XYZ Pvt Ltd sold the property to my friends co ABC Pvt Ltd though its GPA holder.
My query is if the Sale of this property to my friends co (ABC Pvt Ltd) will be considered as invalid as it was executed by a GPA holder. But the GPA was executed in Jan 2011 while the verdict came in Oct 2011 so the transaction will be considered as valid?
The said property is already mortgaged with Bank A (availed in 2016) for some loan and now he wants to balance transfer the loan to Bank B , but Bank B has raised the query about the validity of the transaction happened through GPA in Jan 2011.
Request your expert advice on the same.
Thanks,
Sandeep..
ast
07 September 2018 at 00:50
Sir I am resident of Maharashtra in kokan area. After the death of my grand father my father applied for transfer of grandfathers property in his name (under process). My grandfather had an agricultural land more than 1 acre and a farmer certificate. After the completion of name transfer procedure, my father will be the owner of the grandfather,s property. My Father interested to buy a piece of agricultural land of 10 gunta from the plot of 33 gunta. Someone suggested that it is not possible to buy piece of 10 gunta from the plot of 33 gunta land separately. As there will be only one 7/12 for 33 gunta land, so part land sell is not possible. Please suggest.
Thanking you
Anonymous
07 September 2018 at 00:00
Hi there,
Around 2013-2014 my dad lent a sum of money (in lakhs) for certain interest to his friend as for security my dad registered his land on my dad's name. Later his friend convinced us to register back his land for getting bank loan. He promised us to settled back the money on sanction of bank loan. So on trust we registered back the land to his name (I'm the witness of registration). Later he told us that his bank loan was sanctioned but he lost his pan so unable to derive the money. Still pan card issue continues because of Name change issue arise in Pan. Still he is having a good relationship with our family..! Now the is no security for the money lent. Is there any way to secure the money..?
Hello Experts,
I have a query regarding Sale of a Property and Let us assume the parties as XYZ.
A father (lets assume him as X) filed a suit for injunction on his son (lets assume him as Y) pertaining to a property stating that he has purchased the property with his earnings on his son Y's name (but he does not have any proofs of earnings) , however the son Y says that he was a bike mechanic since a very young age and whatever he used to earn he use to give his father and with his income the said property was purchased. Meanwhile before father X filing a suit for injunction against his own son Y, the son Y gifted the said property to his son Z which father X does not have knowledge about as such Z was not made a party in the Injunction Suit however father obtained a Status Quo order against Y in the Suit. Now as the matter is pending in the court Z wants to sell the property as he has some debts to clear.
1. Now my question is can Z sell the property as he is the owner & possessor of the said property and moreover he is not a party to the suit.
2. And as far as I am concerned the suit filed by X against Y is not maintainable as their is a Mis-joinder of parties.
3. And what consequence Z will face if he sells the property will he be booked under contempt of court.
Plz suggest.
Thank You.
C.A Alok Mukherjee
06 September 2018 at 17:26
Dear Sir,
Can anyone sell 8 kottah barga land in the rural west Bengal. Bargadar is interested to relinquish the right on recept of 1/4 th consideration.
Definition of regular service/ continue service in govt.
Respected Experts.
My question is: I am working in Govt. Autonomous Body since Aug 2000 in regular pay scale initially for 2 years, thereafter extended my services regularly without any break even granted Promotions and Grade Pay time to time as per same policy of deptt. Few years without extension, I served and got regular salaries in services, however, which was granted later due to delay or negligent part of deptt. However, later on my services was regularized in 2018 in terms of issue of a single order as there was no difference in financial or other benefits, as I was getting all benefits same to regular employees.
As of now, vacancy for Manager has been floated by my department, wherein intentionally in the rules, it is repeatedly mentioned that regular service experience of 5 years in grade pay concern, from which applicant is working Regular Basis.
In my case, I am working in regular/ continous basis in financial grades & scales & pay bands of government, timely promotions had been taken by me after passing 2 exams conducted by SSC, No services break as on date, etc. Only the word contract basis earlier depicted in my service is discontinuing me to say Regular Service. It looks injustice as the all over benefits either financial or promotions, etc were given me at par the Regular Employees in my department.
Can any body give best opinion to curtail the world of Contract Basis from my services looking to the above facts on papers so that I can apply for the Post of Manager as stated above.
The above facts are crystal clear. kindly help.
Suresh Saini
Jaipur, Rajasthan.