Respected Sir/s
This is in respect of Wakf Board property issue:-
“A” is the Wakf Board and “B” is land purchaser. Actually “A” is having some properties and the same were notified in a Gazette Notification, which was published in the year 1989. Hence ”B” after careful enquiry, has purchased the lands in the year 2005 from the real owners of the lands, which were not notified by “A” in the said Gazette Notification. Now “A” has reacted and simply made a fresh Gazette Notification in the year 2008 and added the lands of “B” mentioning that due to mistake and oversight of “A” the lands are not notified in the earlier Gazette Notification and thus now claiming “B” properties are belonged to “A”. The case, where the matter is pending before the court, was also accepted earlier that what ever the properties purchased by “B” is not related to “A”, in another case.
The point is:-
1. Now “A” is not showing any documentary evidence to prove that the lands whatever purchased by “B”, are their properties except the Gazette Notifications.
2. How far the second Gazette Notification which was published in the year 2008 is maintainable, nearly after a period of 19 years?
3. Is there any possibility to pass a different/opinion/ order by the same court, now in the present cse?
Plz. Give ur opinion/comment./suggession.
I am male, hindu
if i get immovable property from my mother through will
can i make a will giving that immovable property to third party
my son and wife has any right on that immovable property
i got the fractured in my leg 4 year ago that time due to negligence of doctor i got the dvt in my veins and it still.but i donot have any document related to this. what should i do
i had the fractured in my joint and after
that i get the dvt ulcer in my leg my doctor recommend me sitting work but my work is running type.what should i do
we are in the age of retirement. our few ill manner young colleage harass us daily by physically and mentally.using cheap language. our bosses are not interested in it. i am thinking of leave the job but i think it is not right please advice what should do
RESPECTED EXPERTS THANKS FOR VALUABLE REPONSE
I WOULD LIKE TO KNOW IF MY WIFE LIVING WITH ME FOR LAST ONE YEAR BUT REFUSE TO HAVE SEXUAL RELATION WITH ME, WE HAD HAVE 2, OR 3 TIMES SEX IN THE FIRST MONTH AFTER MARRIAGE, NOW SHE TOTALLY REFUSES TO HAVE SEX WITH ME FOR LAST ONE YEAR DUE TO SOME PSCHYO PROBLEM FOR WHICH I AM SHOWING HER TO DOCTOR BUT MY IN LAWS ARE NOT COOPERATING FOR HER TREATMENT.
MY QUERIES ARE
IT IS GROUND FOR DIVORCE.?
IF YES CAN IT BE PROVED BY MEDICAL TEST.?
CAN MEDICAL TEST SHOW THE PERIOD OF ABSENCE OF SEXUAL RELATION.?
WE HAD HAVE SEX ONLY 2, OR 3 TIMES JUST AFTER MARRIAGE, WILL IT EFFECT MY DIVORCE PETITION.?
SHE REFUSES TO DO HOUSEHOLD WORK, SUCH AS COOKING, WASHING, EVEN NOT SPEAK WITH HUSBAND, IT IS GROUND FOR DIVORCE. ?
DEAR SIRS
MY NAME IS RAJESH PATEL .I AM HAVING A READYMADE BUSINESS IN MUMBAI .I DO NOT HAVE AN SALES TAX REGISTRATION COZ OF SMALL BUSINESS .I HAD SUPPLIED GOODS TO A PARTY IN RAJASTHAN AGAINST WHICH HE HAD ISSUED A CHEQUE .THE GOODS WERE TAKEN BY HAND DELIVERY , A CHALLAN WAS MADE BY ME WITH NO SIGNATURE TAKEN FROM PARTY. I HAD DEPOSITED THE CHEQUE IN MY PERSONAL SAVING A\C WHICH WAS RETURNED TWICE BY THE PARTY (FUNDS INSUFFICIENT) .THE RETURNED CHEQUE WAS ON DATE 12.10.2009.THE PARTY HAS TAKEN GOODS FROM ME FOR THE FIRST TIME .CAN I ISSUE A NOTICE TO THE ABOVE SAID PARTY FOR THE OUTSTANDING DUES AS I HAVE NO INVOICES AND THE GOODS ARE GIVEN BY CHALLAN ON WHICH NO SIGN IS TAKEN.WILL I BE ABLE TO TAKE ACTION AGAINST HIM, ALSO PLEASE TELL ME WHAT ACTION CAN I TAKE IF THE SHOP IS CLOSED BUT THE BANK ACCOUNT IS STILL OPEN AND IF THERE IS NO ONE TO RECEIVE THE NOTICE OR SUMMONS WHICH WE WILL SEND OR IF HE DOES NOT ACCEPT IT.AS ON PHONE WHEN I CALLED HIM HE KEEPS ON TELLING ME TO DO WHAT EVER I WANT TO DO ,SO PLS TELL ME WILL I BE ABLE TO RECOVER THE MONEY .PLEASE ASSIST ME .
ALSO PLS LET ME KNOW THAT WHEN THE CASE IS FILED BUT HE DOES NOT COME ON THE SAID DATE WHAT ACTION CAN WE TAKE AGAINST HIM.
THANKING YOU .
i am researching for a case wherein a university collaborated with a factory for vocational training of students as apprentices. According to the agreement, the factory has been paying all over educational expenses and stipend for the apprentices to the university. But, the university is simply deriving profits out of that money and not giving stipend to the apprentices.
Is there any provision in Law by which the University can be made to follow the terms of agreement and pay the stipend to the students?
where is it mentioned in the apprentices act?
is there any case law or judgement
relating to this case??
a bramhin caste woman in my neighboured has lodged a fake case of abduction and raepe, the realty as the major girl eloped with a harjan guy, since we had enimity, the woman influenced the girl who was recoveded from the harijans home to tell the judge under 164 CRPC to say that me and my uncle abdused and raped. we got bail from lower court.
In the meantime when the eloped girl lived with the harjan man for two days , they made phycical contacts.
The medical tests show no in jury on body and habitual of sex.
My worry is that for sure we are innocent and if pathological tests are brought takes from her vagina, it wil be the harjans semen will be found.But according to 375/376 only penetration is required to make you guilty and not the semen
The chargesheet has been filed since it is more than 90 days.
The trail are yet to begin. The harijan guy is also afraid with tis women and canot dare to marry here although both are of major age and the SC ruling is there that they can live toghther without marriage.
But he is also afraid of the women and the girl is kept as a house prisoner so that she cannot meet the harjan guy again.
will we be punished for the offence which we did not do just because of the bare act langyage that might penettration is enogh.What to do please guide..
Fraud on Trade Mark office
sir,
pls advise me on the issue.
Is there any provision in Indian Trade Mark law just like US law regarding fraud on trade mark office? Can a registered proprietor held liable under Indian trade mark law for not using the mark within stipulated time (if yes, under what provision). Or if he concede that he is using the mark for all the discretion for which he is registered but actually using on one or some of the descriptions, then what would be consequences. what action would lie on him by Registrar of TM or by any third person.
Thanking you.