A relative of mine wants to start either a Sole Prop. Firm or a Partnership Firm. My request to law professionals is for a very brief outline of the steps reqd to bring into existence:
a) Sole Proprietorship Firm
b) Partnership Firm
I am a commerce student so i wud be able to understand the technical terms. So in depth details not reqd. But i request for the Broad Outline or a series of Steps.
Thanks a lot.
Anonymous
01 December 2009 at 21:43
Sir,
When a divorce petition for divorce filed on the ground of cruelty and during proceedings parties compromised and petition got dismiss as withdrawn. Whether cruelty if any till upto the date of getting the petition dismiss as withdrawn can be waived or condoned. If so case law.
Anonymous
01 December 2009 at 21:39
Sir,
As per section 58 of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 jurisdiction of civil court is barred. Whehter order 33-A can chellenge before civil court.
Whether the jurisdcition of civil court is barred to entertain any order under section 33-A of act
Any case law.
Reshma K
01 December 2009 at 21:08
Hi, I have received various answers for my querry regarding rent/lease.
I have one answerssaying that lease can come into existence without written agreement in which case it will deemed monthly tenancy. This seems correct.
My question based on the above point is - In that case, can we say that the only reason why people (landlords) go for written agreement is perhaps because, in case of dispute, it becomes easier to establish that the tenant came into posession through agreement of lease and that he was not in possession before that, ? is this a fair conclusion to make? Otherwise can we say a written agreement is not required as per our discussions on lease/rent.
praveen
01 December 2009 at 20:18
Hi
We hired a maid,age 19 years, from GEETA ENTERPRISES SERVICES(REGD. NO. 3885),SHAKURPUR,DELHI. ON 29/11/2009. at an annual commission of Rs 13000 and monthly salary of Rs 2400.
The fact is that our maid ran out of our house on 01/12/2009(ONLY TWO DAYS AFTER HIRING) without informing us WHEN ONLY MY LIITLE DAUGHTER OF AGED 7 YEARS was at home.She returned from school at 1.00 p.m.We came to know about this at 2.00p.m. when I came to my house for lunch.
Our maid didn't take any valuables from our house.The agency owner shows her unawareness to this.
Pl. advise me what can we do now?
raju
01 December 2009 at 19:52
SIR, CAN I REGISTER A COMPLAINT AT A LOCAL POLICE STATION AGAINST MY COUSIN SO AS TO DETER HIM FROM FORCEFULLY ENTERING MY HOUSE OR THERE IF IS ANY OTHER WAY THROUGH A LAWYER PLEASE DO SUGGEST...THANKS AND REGARDS
Anonymous
01 December 2009 at 19:20
I am in a situation where a cheque was given as part consideration for purchase of a property while execution of an “Agreement to Sell”. Now the said “Agreement to Sell” is up for Specific Performance. My dilemma is though the Cheque has been given by the buyer the Seller, who did not encash it. Seller demanded Demand Draft in lieu of Cheque after One month. Thus the cheque was replaced with Demand Draft. That too (Demand Draft) was also returned without assigning any reason. Subsequently, Seller assured the buyer, in writing to execute Sale Deed, with in four months. Where as Seller who is GPA of ‘Original Allottee’ never provided NOC from the ‘Original Allottee’ at any point of time to obtain mandatory permission to make a transaction, neither performed his part to execute “Sale Deed” against the Agreement to Sell, in reference. Thus, the same is up for Specific Performance, in trial court.
Do we have any judgement of Supreme Court or High Court for citation, where it is laid down that if a party gives a cheque to the other party it is onus of the other party to deposit the same for encashment and it will be presumed that the Buyer has discharges his obligation under contract by giving the said cheque to the Seller.
Anonymous
01 December 2009 at 19:16
I am in a situation where a cheque was given as part consideration for purchase of a property while execution of an “Agreement to Sell”. Now the said “Agreement to Sell” is up for Specific Performance. My dilemma is though the Cheque has been given by the buyer to the Seller, who did not encash it. Seller demanded Demand Draft in lieu of Cheque after One month. Thus the cheque was replaced with Demand Draft. That too (Demand Draft) was also returned without assigning any reason. Subsequently, Seller assured the buyer, in writing to execute Sale Deed, with in four months. Where as Seller who is GPA of ‘Original Allottee’ never provided NOC from the ‘Original Allottee’ at any point of time to obtain mandatory permission to make a transaction, neither performed his part to execute “Sale Deed” against the Agreement to Sell, in reference. Thus, the same is up for Specific Performance, in trial court.
Do we have any judgement of Supreme Court or High Court for citation, where it is laid down that if a party gives a cheque to the other party it is onus of the other party to deposit the same for encashment and it will be presumed that the Buyer has discharges his obligation under contract by giving the said cheque to the Seller.
Anonymous
01 December 2009 at 19:10
Dear sirs, As part of payment to purchase a plot, I gave a cheque for Rs. 3 lakhs in july 2009. But, the seller did not encash it. He did not even produce it in the bank. Is there any expiry date for the cheque? If yes, what happens after the expiry date? Can he say that he did not get the money from me?
Bigamy
I got married in April 2003. My husband was having an affair before and after marriage. He got married to another woman while being married to me in June 2004. He confessed to this in 2006. We were in Dubai and the woman was also living in Dubai.
He promised me he will not see her and not cheat on me again, we returned to India. In April 2009 I saw some messages from a female colleague and I confronted him. He said she sent it to him by mistake. I had travelled for work recently for 3 months to US. Suddenly he is talking about divorce and is very adamant. I suspect him of having an affair again. he is not admitting to it, I have a few text messages on his mobile, but I do not know if that is enough evidence to prove his adultery.
He is not giving any reason for divorce and is saying that he has decided and thats it. He does not find it necessary to give me any reason. He says he does not have feelings for me anymore and does not want to waste time. I have told him I am not moving out of the house or giving u a mutual divorce, if he wants he can file for divorce. If he does that, I want to prove his bigamy. How can i get records to prove his bigamy. He got married the second time in Bandra court, Mumbai.
He is mentally harassing me and my family, threatening me to give him mutual divorce. One day he was about to hit me. My family is scared that he may hurt me. I am not sure if it a an affair or is it his mother pressuring him to leave me. She was always against our marriage. What should I do, please advise.
Few queries:
I am working, dont have a child yet. Am I eligible for compensation?
What can I do to prove his bigamy/infidelity?
The house is on both our names, am I eligible for half the property or full property?
What is the punishment for bigamy?
Regards