Kiran Pande
08 February 2011 at 20:05
We are 4 minority members who have not signed the consent letter due to non availability of floor plan, only a part of closed parking to members by the developer etc. Now after examining the indemnity bonds signed by the managing committee members, we find:
A/ It's being signed on Rs. 100/ stamp paper.
B/ Some members have signed after 15 days.
C/ One member has not mentioned any date while signing
D/ When secretary signed, there is no signature of a witness.
E/ There is an overwriting by a member of M.C.
F/ There is no signature/ acknowledgment of the bonds by registrar and we don't know whether the registrar is aware.
NOW OUR QUERIES:
Q1/ What should be the value of the stamp duty for an indemnity bond?
Q2/ If a member does not sign within 15 days?
Q3/ If no signing date is mentioned?
Q$/ Is witness's signature mandatory? Even for secretary who signs the indemnity bond?
Q5/ Does Indemnity bonds signed by the members of the managing committee requires acknowledgment/ signature/ stamp of registrar?
KIRAN PANDE
kiran.c.pande@gmail.com
09920991661
Anonymous
08 February 2011 at 17:33
whether landed property purchased in HUF name can be registered without mentioning the name of the individuals copacensor of HUF.If yes, then under which section or provision?
Anonymous
08 February 2011 at 15:59
Thanks in advance for legal opinion.
The shop/mall is in Gurgaon but builder's registered office is in Delhi.
Various documents from the builder state following:
"subject to jurisdiction Delhi only"
Can I still file a case in Gurgaon court/consumer court?
Chandrika Subramaniyan
08 February 2011 at 14:51
Dear Experts,
I am in the process of selling a 35 Year old Flat in Chennai Mylapore area.The sale is set to conclude at Rs 5200000 (all white)for a UDS of 595 Sq Ft & Flat size inclusive of common area at 825 Sq Ft which is part of 6 flats building. My questions are as follows and would be grateful for a guideline.
1.In the sale deed, the buyer wants to segregate land value,Building value so that he can reduce the registration fee for himself plus value for furnitures built in(part of the flat) all of which will make Rs 5200000 and I expect to collect one DD for this whole amount. Now, will I be breaking the law by signing above deed and showing partial as land and building value towards LTCG computations and the balance as cost towards the furniture.Would this balance be considered as black money ? I want to be transparent law compliant .
2. The lawyer I am dealing with does not give me a an indication for his fee structure. His role in this has been minimal like talking to the buyer ( Initial sale price and agreement has been directly by self and the buyer as buyer is the tenant who resides there) , giving copies of documents (Copies were taken by the buyer paying his own money from the lawyer)for buyer's loan approval, to write the sale deed and register the property etc. I would be grateful for a general and approximate guideline for a Lawyer's fee.
Thanking You
Chandrika Subramaniyan
Anonymous
08 February 2011 at 13:43
1. Suppose “A”, “B” and “C” is the three brothers they don’t have sister,
2. all three and A’s wife and B’s wife are is died now and C’s wife is alive,
3. The A and C don’t have any issue .
4. B have two son both are alive. “A” have property (flat) in pune. The A and C don’t have any issue.
5. No WILL is created by “A”, but “A” gave power of attorney to B’s son
6. My question is whether C’s wife can clam in that property (flat) or only B’s sons have nominees.
Anonymous
08 February 2011 at 13:02
Dear Sir
I need your opnion in this case
Case is as follows
My grandfather had a brother who died in 1965 ,after that his wife had filed suit for property demading 1/2 share in total property .but the court ordered 1/3 share ,the order wwas given in 1986 .After that my grandfather again applead in pune court ,which was rejeccted .
After that there was out of court settlement between my grandfather and opposite party ,wherein a non registered agreeemnt(1987) was signed stating the amount and untesnils to give her and orall agreement for few selected lands ,pls note that land number was not inclued in agreeemnt ..
Till 2008 all the property was in my grandfather's name
now after 25 yrs a third person cheated grandmother(opposite party) ,,he first the got teh agreement of sale prepared his namein december 2007 ,,and the inentionally prepared power attoreny in his father's name
pls note that when the sale aggreement and power of attroney was prepared the land was not in her name ..
after this third person using fraudlent method and docs like agreement of 1987 and cout oderds ,got my granomther's name on the land ,he ensured that we not ening informed of this
thus first prepared the sale of agreement and power of attorney and then got the lands in her name
now in sept 02 2009 my grandmother had an accidnt she was hospitlaised from sept 02 2009 till 10/09/09 and died on 13/09/09 ,in between the third perosn using the power of attonery enetered in his father nanme ..ecxcuted the sale deed ..pls assist how can i cancell the sale deed what woud be best steps to win this case
Imp pts
Land was not in vendee name when the sale of aggreement and power of attronery was perpared
What is value of such docs in cout .
any 1 can help me pls call 9773373450
Anonymous
08 February 2011 at 12:34
I booked, 2-3 years ago, a commercial shop in one of the upcoming malls in Gurgaon developed by a known builder.
I have made 100% of the payment. The mall is now almost ready but the registration is not yet done.
The registration has not been done but an invoice/bill has been already sent by the builder/maintenance agency.
• Can builder or the maintenance agency/company already raise the bill/invoice for electricity and maintenance before registration of the property?
• Shouldn’t such a demand be raised only after registration of the shop/property?
• Is it same for residential complexes (society flats, …)?
Thanks for the legal opinion.
Bhawani Mahapatra
08 February 2011 at 11:52
Dear Experts
A lease agreement is executed between "X and "Y" for certain thing wherein it is specifically mentioned in a clause that any dispute arising out of that agreement will be decided at the competent court where "X" resides.
"Y" resides at a different place. "X" and "Y" resides at different jurisdiction.
Now can "Y" file a suit at the court where he resides against "X" for specific performance of contract ?
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illegal construction at open terrece
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