Anonymous
23 June 2011 at 07:51
Sir, The father get transferred his house to his son by way of “sale deed” instead of “Gift deed” . In sale deed the consideration amount mentioned is about one crore which was calculated as per circle rate of that area but no such transaction done between father and son. Now my question is:- whether someone (such as Income Tax Deptt. etc ) can question the son that from where you get this one crore.
Anonymous
22 June 2011 at 22:09
Hi,
My grandfather gave a piece of land alloted to him in Govt. Auction ,to My father & Uncle through
"Registerd Decree in Civil Court for division in the name of My father & Uncle."
Later that "Decree" registerd through "Intqual" in Govt. Records.
NoW my Uncle want to sale his part to my Father .What "ll be the procedure.
Anonymous
22 June 2011 at 21:59
Sir, a property owned by my father which was originally of my paternal grandmother.After that it was registerd at my father's name.
My brother has dispute with his wife and his wife has claimed shared household here .But brother is agree to give her alternate accomodation but she is not willing to go out of our house.Is this ancestral property?
Anonymous
22 June 2011 at 19:06
sir,
my sister has got a property in her name for which all the expenses of purchasing and registration and stamp duty have been paid by my father , now she is married and wants to transfer that property to me (brother).
which would be the cheapest way of transferring the title in favour of me.
I have gone through the gift deed and that is very expensive.
please provide me any other cheaper method of transferring this property which is located in Rajasthan.
Mukul Kr. Singh
22 June 2011 at 16:00
Hi, my question is that my mother left a house(its on her name) after her death(intestate case) and my maternal uncle acquired that house illegally.[My father died earlier and I am the only child of my parents].Now there is a goon who stays in that house.I was minor(14) when this happened.I applied for the Succession to Civil Judge and in that case he obtained a fraud 'will' claiming all the assets of my mother to his name.Today as I am major now and have completed the mutation of that house on my name.
Now, Can I sell that property without any hassle or my maternal uncle deserves the right to interfere and take any legal action against me.Plz mind that the succession case is still running in the court and the decision is awaited( this succession case includes her bank balance, pension and gratuity fund held by the govt as she was a state govt employee).Please provide insight.Many Thanks
Anonymous
22 June 2011 at 15:51
Dear Sir,
I would like to know that a property purchased under SARFEASI act through bank auction 5 years back, but the bidder had not registered the sale certificate to his name and now wants to sell that directly to third party. So is it possible to sell that property. will the purchaser have any hindrances later on , like the actual owner on the property legal heir objecting for the third party sale registration and try to redeem the property saying that he is willing to settle the bank dues with intereset as of date, will he be handed over the pocession since the actual bidder has not registered the sale agreement in his favour .
Benjamin Jacob
22 June 2011 at 15:10
Hi,
I have a home loan for a property in Navi Mumbai and of-course the house is in my name. Due to work, I live in Bangalore whereas the rest of my family stays in the said house in Navi Mumbai.
For all purposes, it seems I've to be present for a lot of things, some of them being:
1. To be able to vote in the society elections
2. To participate in the societ meetings
3. To avail the society's club membership
etc.
Is there any way for my brother or any family member to be an equal owner in the poperty? How does this affect the above issues? My brother's is a businessman, so not sure about the bank rules w.r.t. home loan/transfer.
Ideally, I would want the house to be in his name, or at least joint ownership and I continue paying for the home loan (it helps me in my tax purposes as well)
What is the best way/solution for this?
- Benjamin Jacob
Anonymous
22 June 2011 at 13:33
Dear sir,
I belongs to karnataka- I have grand father proeprties which were divided in to my slef and my father.(He passed away in the year 2007)he had one son and three daughter-In which 2 of daugher were married in 1985 and 1990 ,
1.According to karnataka act of 1994 which clearly states that daughter who have married before 1994 they can't calim their rights in ancester property's?
2.My second sister were married in 1998.
3.She is already file the suit for partition in 20/8/2005 what can be the result and how long will it take?
4.She will get equal share with me or less?
5.She have share in landed house or not?
6.We have three daughter and one son including my mother, but they are asking 1/3 share how?
7.But they did defendent for the case me and my two sister including my mother how?
This case will depend on karnatka act or different please give good suggestion.
Thank U
Anonymous
22 June 2011 at 12:50
V is my father: two sons birth 1925&1928.
two daughters birth 1920 &1930respectively.
Daughters are married in year 1936 and 1950 respectively.
V = business is sukhavastu brahmin cast brahmin. he sold old property and purchased property called Z small plot with house in 1945 . V expired in 1959.
thus 1959 TO 1980 all the property papers named after V only.in the year 1980 mother
(M) called for partition of said plot and house. wardi application prepered mutualy signed by two sisters and mother for partition between two sons .(copy of this wardi application is lossed )from this day allthe property papers named two brothers as AQA & BQB as on 2011 JUNE. Mother expired ON 1995. Son BQB sold small part of his hissa in 1992 to avoide finansial troubles.( no body thake any objection)
when we tried to sale this plot with house in 2011, public notice served by builder received objection from our two sisters for equal share.deal stopped .my question is what to do ? state karnataka
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Property Maintenance Agreement
There is seperately executed property maintenance agreement for monthly rent in addition to the lease agreement for the same propertly.
Just wanted to know the treatment for the purpose of TDS.
I feel the property maintenance agreement is not a rental agreement and somwhat akin to the AMC.
Hence TDS will be deducted u/s 194(c) and not 194(I).
Am I correct in the interpretation.