Querist :
Anonymous
(Querist) 12 December 2011
This query is : Resolved
Hello.... If someone sends a legal notice to which no reply is been given by the person who has received the notice , will this be termed as IMPLIED CONSENT by the receiver of the notice to the contents of the Legal Notice. Any Case Laws.
Advocate. Arunagiri
(Expert) 12 December 2011
It is not mandatory to give a reply to the legal notice. No reply will not amount to implied consent, it shows that he is not interested in giving reply.
Sailesh Kumar Shah
(Expert) 13 December 2011
I have similar views as Arunagiri Sir.
Raj Kumar Makkad
(Expert) 14 December 2011
Non-reply cannot be treated as admission but it is desired to file its reply as it can solve various coming problems or can minimise the chances of litigation.
prabhakar singh
(Expert) 14 December 2011
I have similar views as raj kumar makkad
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