Shalmali
29 November 2009 at 21:24
Dear Sir/Mam,
I am working for a software company in Bangalore. I went on leave after getting it approved from my Manager. Now, when I was on leave, my manager initiated my resignation (exit request)using the Internet through the company's web-site on my behalf without asking/informing me. Actually, I never wanted to resign & I never talked / expressed any gesture regarding resigning from my service. I received an auto-generated e-mail regarding the same. I received & read that e-mail when I was in my native place (different state than where the company is located).
In this case,
1. Is the Resignation initiated by my
manager through the web-site
considered valid ? (It doesn't contain
my signature)
If I need to file a case against my
employer, does it seem a strong case?
2. Can my native state be a
jurisdiction ,where I went
online & received/read the e-mail
regarding my exit request?
Please do reply...
Anonymous
29 November 2009 at 21:06
I have completed my LLB in the year 1996. I am also registered with Indian Bar Council as an Advocate. Now I want to complete my LLM course from Distance Education. Please tell me the name of Universities who is conducting LLM course and the date of admission and also the site of Universities, Urgently.
Thanking you
Anonymous
29 November 2009 at 21:04
I have completed my LLB in the year 1996. I am also registered with Indian Bar Council as an Advocate. Now I want to complete my LLM course from Distance Education. Please tell me the name of Universities who is conducting LLM course and the date of admission and also the site of Universities, Urgently.
Thanking you
Anonymous
29 November 2009 at 21:02
Hello sirs,
After second appeal in high court is disposed by single judge in a civil case,Whether appeal to full bench in high court can be applied.In madurai bench of madras high court,if so where will the full bench sit. sir
Anonymous
29 November 2009 at 20:57
Hello Learned advocate sirs,
I let out a property for 15 years ,no agreement ,only orally, Now I want to vacate him he is refusing to vacate, when the 15 days notice should be given is it m,andatory, whether 15 days court notice can be given or advocate notice is enough,if he do not receive it what is the effect,any other legal pints in filing the sit sir,
Sumir
29 November 2009 at 20:07
What are the necessary and sufficient conditions for declaring a person mentally unfit/insane/ill or not in corpis mentis to the extend that his legal right of making complaints and get them heard or redressed is curbed?
Anonymous
29 November 2009 at 19:50
I had signed an agreement for sale in July 2009 to buy a plot for Rs.18 lacks, and paid Rs.7 lacks as advance. I wanted to take home loan for the remaining amount. But, I am not getting loan because the schedule of the property mentioned in the agreement is not matching (on one side) physically. As I cannot buy it without loan, I want to withdraw from the agreement. Can I get back my money? If yes, will he pay interest for the period for which he had used my money? And is it possible to stop him from selling the property to some other person?
dasd
29 November 2009 at 18:09
what is the difference between
penalty & prosecution
order & direction
notice & intimation
opportunity of being heard & sufficient cause
raju
29 November 2009 at 17:59
dear sir, we have a property in delhi which was allotted to my father and his brother after partion of india against the properties of my grandfather in pakistan. the monetery amount for resettlement given to my father and uncle by the ministry of urban development was in ratio of 30% of my father and 70% of my uncle.now both my dad and uncle have expired and now the inheritants of my uncle are asking for a 70% share even though they have never entered our house for last 40 years as they are residing out of delhi..this property lease papers clearly state that 'division of property is not allowed'..on my side we have 3 inheritants i.e my mother,sister and myself..on my uncles side its also 3 inheretants i.e one brother and 2 sisters..now we want a settlement on the ratio of half and half on this property on the basis that we have been the only resident of the stated property for almost 40 years..my cousin wants to settle in ratio of 60% for him and wants to give us only 40%....does he have any legal right to enter a house occupied by only my family since past 40 years on the basis of illegal or legal grounds.please advice accordingly.
ALSO I WOULD LIKE TO ASK THAT IF THE THINGS GO TO THE COURT THEN WHAT SORT OF CHANCES WE HAVE OF GETTING 50 PERCENT SHARE.ALSO WHAT CAN BE THE LEAST AMOUNT WE CAN CLAIM FOR OURSELVES ON THE BASIS OF THE FACT WE HAVE OCCUPIED THE PROPERTY AND MAINTAINED IT FOR 40 YEARS,PAID ALL THE TAXES ETC..ALSO THAT ON EACH SIDE OF THIS ANCESTRAL PROPERTY WE HAVE 3 INHERITERS EACH.THAT MEANS FROM MY SIDE WE HAVE MY MOTHER,MY SISTER AND MYSELF AND ON MY UNCLES SIDE THERE ARE ONE SON AND TWO DAUGHTERS AS THEIR MOTHER HAS EXPIRED TOO.DO U THINK IF MY COUSIN DOES NOT AGREE ON 50:50 RATIO OUT OF THE COURT SETTLEMENT THEN SHOULD WE GO TO THE COURT OURSELF.BASICALLY I STILL WOULD LIKE TO KNOW WHO STANDS A BETTER CHANCE IN THE COURT AND THE DECISION WOULD FAVOUR WHOM. ALSO ONE LAST THING IS HOW CAN THE FATHERS AND UNCLES SHARE BE DISTRIBUTED AMONG THE INHERITORS ACCORDING TO INDIAN LAW..THANKS
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