Anonymous
16 August 2010 at 16:04
XYZ, a Public Trust, registered under the relevant statute, convenes a Special General Meeting of its members on 16th August, 2010 to consider certain items as per the Agenda. All the items of the Agenda could not be deliberated due to paucity of time and the President adjourns the meeting sine-die without declaring the venue, date and time of the next meeting.
Question 1: Is it necessary/ mandatory for the President to state the date,time and venue for the next meeting?
Question 2: Can the Trust allow new members (other than who had attended the meeting dated 16th August, 2010) to attend the reconvened meeting?
Please quote the relevant Statutory Provision under the Bombay Public Trust Act, 1950.
Thanks & Regards
Yogesh Modi (CA)
mukesh jain
16 August 2010 at 15:13
Need more details about money lending licence. When it is necessary.
Apurva Kumar
16 August 2010 at 13:17
Dear,
Sir/Mam
after the death of husband the widow was left with almost 1 and half year male child and she is presently working at shimla and her in-laws did not objected any of her wish and politely moved with her and their grandchild to her place of working. suddenly after someday she started behaving very rudely and ask her in-laws to leave her alone with her child and ask them to return back to their place and house at patiala now the question to YOU all member is that what legal remedy do her innocent in-laws is having in these circumstance as their only wish is to leave life peacefully with her daughter-in-law and grandchild they are also ready to remarry their daughter-in-law free of her wish!
i need answer from both aspect of the case i.e from the side of in-laws and daughter-in-law??
Regards!
Apurva Kr!!
Lawyer!!
Anonymous
16 August 2010 at 12:24
While one can easily find Court Fee for Mumbai High Court from the net same is not the case with Arbitration.
Pl. advice the basis for calculating the Fee for Arbitration.
Also pl. advice as to one can include all points for arbitration in one application?
Anonymous
16 August 2010 at 12:16
I had been given a personal loan by a bank because I was a credit card customer. Bank did not ask me to sign any document for the personal loan. Subsequently I had paid the complete loan however bank is asking me to pay 15000 more against the non regular payment of EMI. Yes I paid some emis late but never defaulted. I feel bank is now asking for exorbitant amount. Please guide me is there any leagal way to avoid this extra mount from the bank?
while granting loan bank was well aware that I am a non regular paying customer as I could pay my credit card dues most of the time little late but in this case also I did not default any time I always paid the complete mount to bank. In such situation can bank still go ahead and grant a personal loan without any paper work? is it legal?
modassir nasim
15 August 2010 at 23:40
respected sir,
can a money suit be changed into title suit ?(because to avoid multiplicity of suit and unnecessary delay to the parties)
Anonymous
15 August 2010 at 22:38
I am new to this website. and i am not sure the category of this question.
i am 24 years old guy from kerala.I love a girl from Indonesia. I want to marry her.she is living there.
Is there any legal procedures to marry her .we want to live together in India.please explain the steps
thanks in advance
Anonymous
15 August 2010 at 22:37
i have taken policy and invested money and never recieved my original policy documents so that i could free look said policy. now can i file suit for recovery of money.
Ladhu Ram Chowdhary
15 August 2010 at 21:34
Whether a court is bound to pass decree for specific performance even if thesuit is collusive and is not seriously contested or is admitted by defendant? what precautions must be taken for judicious exercise of discretion?
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terminated society
Respected sir in andhrapradesh state once co-op society terminated in long back 1979-80,can it is valid at present?