specific performance

This query is : Resolved 
 

(Querist)
16 April 2010

A person sell a property given in her will by husband but no decree was obtained and conveyance deed was executed by society.
Seller claim he was ready to sell but buyer default. Can person execute sale deed if all their family members agree to go to court but without conveyance deed.




c n vittal rao (Expert)
16 April 2010

Please clarify what you mean by 'no decree was obtained', which society executed a conveyance deed? and to whom?
Which person needs to execute sale deed
in favour of whom? Reframe your question.

Raj Kumar Makkad (Expert)
16 April 2010

Conveyance deed registration is must in the aforessid matter prior to initiation of any desired action.

sanjeev kumar (Querist)
17 April 2010


Sorry, I missed an important word here.

"A" sell a property given in will by her husband and "A" enters into a agreement to sell with "B". Property was from a socoiety and no conveyance deed was executed by society in the name of orignal allotee.

"A" refused to sell the property to "B" and facing specific perfomacne case. "A" (Seller) claim he was ready to sell but buyer default. They claim even without decree they can execute sale deed if all their family members go to sub-registrar even if without conveyance deed by society.

Is it true.



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