Is it mutualy destructive

Ranganath (Querist) 21 February 2012 This query is : Resolved
Ld counsels,

Wife alleges that husband did not participate in particular ceremony of marriage which is essential even after elders persued him and hence the marriage did not solemnize.

At the same she claims that only after few days after coming to the matrimonial home she came to know that husband was unwilling to marry and he deliberately suppressed. Is it not inconsistent and mutually destructive to say that marriage not solemnized bcs husband refused and later coming to know that husband was unwilling.

when the wife claims there is no marriage solemnized can she claim that husband is impotent bcos of this marriage is not consummated.

Please clarify. Thanks.

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V R SHROFF (Expert) 21 February 2012
"when the wife claims there is no marriage"

HER OWN MARRIAGE?
YOU SAYS WIFE, SO SHE IS MARRIED.
So she accept marriage.

M.Sheik Mohammed Ali (Expert) 21 February 2012
she could not claim impotency cause, but she can claim null and void marriage

Raj Kumar Makkad (Expert) 21 February 2012
Self contradictory statements are fatal for the case of petitioner in the given case.

Rajeev Kumar (Expert) 21 February 2012
Agree with Maakad

Sudhir Kumar, Advocate (Expert) 21 February 2012
query is not clear

kranthi kiran (Expert) 21 February 2012
She need to prove both her contentions
1) That marriage was not performed according to customs. i.e, for example if hindu marriage- saptapadi was not performed

2) That the husband is impotent by requiring him to submit to medcal examination