vicky kumar
12 May 2014 at 17:59
Respected Sir/Madam,
My relative(male) took many loans over the years from money lenders and friends, which, due to high interest, he could not pay, and the loan sumed up-to 1.5cr. He gave blank signed cheque to many. Unable to pay the loan he ran with his family to someplace no one knows as advised by the lawyer.He has police case on him and the blank cheque he gave came back as there was no money in the account. The lawyer/relative has kept a IP case in court(Don't know what it is, all I know is if you can't pay the loan with all your property and salary the court grands you a option not to pay). But its been 2 years but the numbering didn't come till now, the lawyer keeps telling 2 months, and extend the date( I don't mean any offence to the lawyer). And he says you don't have to come to the court, I will see everything, after the numbering comes, in 2-3 years the court will grant the case in your favor.IS IT POSSIBLE???. His daughter is studying in a different state, Loan people said they will take the money from her after her studies as her father used her studies as a reason for loan(and maybe took loan on her name, I don't know), SHOULD SHE BE IN CONTACT WITH HER PARENTS, loan people already know where she studies and came to her for her father location but she didn't tell them and booked a police case and they went away. DOES THE DAUGHTER HAS TO PAY THE LOAN??. WHAT CAN SHE DO NOW SO THAT SHE WONT GET IN ANY TROUBLE. it will take 3 yrs to complete her studies. WHAT SHOULD SHE DO SO THAT NO TROUBLE COMES TO HER. Please reply soon.
THANK YOU...
Vipul
11 May 2014 at 09:58
I have bought a dda flat (leased)property. This property is sold 6 - 7 times on GPA and Agreement to sale. Now i want to make this property free hold. When i saw all the GPA and Agreement to sale i found that one of the GPA and Agreement to Sale have some problem.
Third no of person sold the property and transfer his GPA and "Agreement to sale" to husband and wife.
GPA made on wife name and agreement to sale was on Husband name in 1993. After that husband had sold the property and transfer all the document to next party and next party sold property to us and transfer all the document with our name. We have bought this property 10 year back.
Now my question is:
1) Who have right to sold the property (GPA holder or the person who have agreement to sale).
2) if only GPA holder have this right what should i do now to make my property register as free hold.
T.R. Ganesan
10 May 2014 at 14:28
An Affidavit drawn on non judicial stamp paper of Rs. 100/= denomination required to be registered for the purpose of bidding a Tender. Whether this affidavit could be registered, if yes who would be the competent authority. The affidavit is NOT in the fOrm of that " I .....................aged abut....years, Indian Inhabitant residing at .................do hereby on solemn affirmation state and submit as under".
ragav
10 May 2014 at 11:28
RC Book issues
Hi I purchased a old vehicle which had 4 owners previously. It is a Daewoo Matiz REGIESTERED YEAR 2000. In the book, the Chassis number is printed correctly (with pencil impression on the book) but the Engine number
has a small clerical error.
Actually on engine the vehicle it shows,
S8EV-XXXXXX and on the RC BOOK, it is written out as SSEV-XXXXXX (where XXXXXX stands for numeric digits). The united india insurance on the previous owner also has the same mistake i.e. they have copied the wrong engine number from the RC book and given Third party insurance.
Kindly note that I do not have the original
purchase bill of the vehicle as it might be with the first owner. Further, as the Matiz has stopped now, the Dealer also closed his shop in chennai, so I cannot take his help. I am in Erode which is 400 km away from chennai. The vehicle is registered in chennai only.
Please let me know how I can get this rectified in the RC book. Will it be a problem if I use the vehicle with the mistake? If I want to renew insurance, should I give the actual engine number
or the wrong number as it is in the book.
Reshma K
09 May 2014 at 16:00
Sir,
Let's say we prepare an agreement in Bangalore, in the document we say 'this agreement is made at Bangalore" and send it by email and the other party signs it in Mumbai and sends it back my email. Is that fine? Does it mean that the agreement was made at Bangalore for the purposes of jurisdiction.
Can you throw some light on this and various combinations thereof like both the parites may be not be in Bangalore or Mumbai, though their respective Head offices may be that, but sign from London and Newyork saying that ageement is made in Bangalore. Wil that be fine??
Reshma K
09 May 2014 at 15:38
I have another question related.
if there is no stamp paper invovlved, can a commercial document be preated.
For example, can the parties at the end put 8th May 2014 as the date, but at the start of the document say, "that this agreement is made on 1st January 2014. Is that possible. If yes, what is the extent???
Can such documents become admissible by payment of stamp duty with penalty later?
Reshma K
09 May 2014 at 15:35
Dear Sir,
I searched for some case law, did not find.
my question is
1. In Commercial agreements, at the beginning we say " This agreement is made on 02-May-2014", sometimes we put in brackets, Effective Date".
Now my questions is, if at the end, one of the parties sign on 20th May, and second party signs on 25th may, what is the date that needs to be taken as the commencing of agreement.
Also is there a need to put the phrase "Effective Date" at the start of the agreement"
Reshma K
09 May 2014 at 15:29
Sir, We are signing an NDA. My question is
In an NDA, should we say that the term os this NDA is X years, and then should we then again say that the obligation to maintain information confidential is for X years after the termination (end date) of the agreement.
Can you pls help in understand whether NDA needs to have a term, or should it just be the number of years that information should be kept confidential after it is disclosed.
Look forward eagerly to a comprehesnive answer on this. Thanks in advance..
PRATAP KESHARI MOHANTY
09 May 2014 at 10:03
Dear Sir,/S
A woman was purchased some Ac.0-90 dec land & cultivating and the land is recorded in her name & paying land revenue. some days ago one man forcibly occupied Ac.0-5 dec out of the above said land, then the lady made me her General Power of Attorney and I filed suit against the defendant, & case is under adjudication, last month the lady (My principal) made a un regd Will in my favour to which her husband and elder son have signed as witness,One week back the Testator expired, and I have obtained the Death Certificate from the competent authority, Now my my question that 1-can I produced the Will before the trial Court and continue the suit as it is. 2- The property is mentioned in the schedule of the Will. and is it necessary to probate the Will and where / which Court it has to be probated,and what is the procedure to probate the Will.
Thank You
with regards.
Mr. P.K. Mohanty
Mr. P. K. Mohanty
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Surname after marriage
Dear Sir/madam,
Kindly,Provide your valuable advise for which I have been always thankful.
-Is it mandatory OR good for future to change wife's surname to surname of Husband after her marriage.
-If one wants to change,will marriage certificate work to be a proof for change in Voting card,D.L.,PAN etc of wife.
-If husband has no surname in his ID proofs etc,can wife have/change to surname of husband in this case.
(If husband gets his surname added to his name,is Gazette notification mandatory or Affidavit and information in news paper will do.)
Thanks