Querist :
Anonymous
(Querist) 24 May 2010
This query is : Resolved
Respected experts, I had purchased a land from the heir of owner of that land some 55 yrs back. Suddenly/recently a person showed a certified copy of a sale deed executed by grandfather of the heirs who sold me. In that sale deed it is written that possession of only original sale deed document will be proof of consideration amount paid. The deed was executed 70yrs back. He even does not have proof of payment of the consideration. They do not know or able to explain about the original sale deed. When we inquired about this from the seller, they say that we are unaware of any such sale deed. and we sure that our grand father has not any land/ even inch of land during his life time. Can incidence of Impersonation be assumed? Will they have to explain the where about or what happened to the original sale deed? If they do not show the original sale deed or explain about what happened to the original or any other proof of consideration paid, will it be considered void? Does he is having better title than me? Can we assume that since no consideration was paid, so no title passed, subsequently grandchildren sold it to us? Land is vacant. Thanks and regds.
Devajyoti Barman
(Expert) 24 May 2010
Possession is 9/10th of title. In this circumstances your title is very much protected as the incidents you have stated does not point out a better tittle than you. Moreover any prospective suit is barred by limitation.
Uma parameswaran
(Expert) 25 May 2010
After 70 years back he could not claim the title.
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