Querist :
Anonymous
(Querist) 25 September 2010
This query is : Resolved
on my client has sold the property to purchser and after that my client has made the POA to sale the same property is it possible
adv. rajeev ( rajoo )
(Expert) 25 September 2010
It is possible but it is illegal. If the PA holder sells the property to any body the first purchaser can challenge it and he can file criminal case also against your client.
s.subramanian
(Expert) 25 September 2010
If the POA relates to the property sold by your client it is nothing but a criminal ofence of cheating under Sec.420 of IPC.Such POA will not have any legal effect and if the agent sells the same property under that POA,he will also be liable for prosecution.
Kiran Kumar
(Expert) 25 September 2010
i agree with Mr. Subramanian
R.Ranganathan
(Expert) 25 September 2010
Mr. Anonymous, I don't understand how you are asking such a question. Even a layman will be able to say, this will amount to cheating, fraud and will also lead to so many other offences under IPC. I think you should avoid asking such queries. The experts are forced to waste their time on these silly queries instead of trying to help others who are really in need of legal advice.
Uma parameswaran
(Expert) 25 September 2010
Both the persons can file criminal case against the owner.
Chanchal Nag Chowdhury
(Expert) 28 September 2010
Yes. If your client is determined to land himself behind bars.
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