Raj Sethia
24 June 2011 at 22:14
We have made sale in 1st quarter, for eg on 30.6.2010.but our client has recieved the material 07.07.2010 in 2nd quarter and accordingly they have mentioned the date of purchase 07.07.2010 and issued the c=form accordingly.
Kindly inform is this c-form valid or they have to rectify the date & quarter also.
Rajesh Kumar
24 June 2011 at 17:18
HELLO,
PLEASE TELL ME ABOUT STOCK TRANSFER RULES
IF I PURCHASE 100000 AND 12.5% VAT TOTAL
IS 112500/- OUT OF THIS SALE 56250/- WITH TAX AND 30000/- RS(COST PRICE)OF STOCK TRANSFER TO OTHER BRANCH IN(UP) SO CAN I TAKE ALL INPUT CREDIT IN HEAD OFFICE.
OR WHAT IS THE EXACT METHOD PLEASE TELL ME.
Bhupesh Pradhan
24 June 2011 at 14:53
Our Factory is situated in Chhattisgarh. We have various Branch Offices in various States out side Chhattisgarh. We transfer our products to our Braches in “Branch Transfer Basis”. After that Receiving Branches give Form “F” monthly to Chhattisgarh. The products which we have transfer to various states are sold in the state & in the respective states we have paid VAT. In some cases the received date & date of sale is same. Now the Chhattisgarh Sales tax Department has demanded CST on the Branch Transfer treating it as “Predetermined Sales”. Please advice in this regard
sir ,
my self jainendra sharma and i am student of law. sir i want to sort notes on service tax and also current rates with new amedment.
please provide us sir.
rammohan
23 June 2011 at 18:49
I request to have clarification on the following:
'X' (who is in India) gets an order for certain service from abroad customer'Y'. 'X' sublet the job to some one in India say 'Z' to attend the job and export directly to 'Y'. Here payment given to 'Z' from 'X'. ('y' pays to 'x' and not directly to 'z' though service is received from 'z'). 'x' pays to 'z' in convertible foreign currency say in $s.
please clarify whether the service provided by 'z' is called as export of service. whether liability of payment of service tax comes here.
rammohan
23 June 2011 at 18:42
pls clarify on the following issue:
'X' is authorised service provider for many brands of computers providing service in india. when a customer (buyer of a computer of a particular brand)brings a computer for repair during the warranty period, the service provider replaces the components and does the repair. here the components are supplied on FREE OF COST by the original manufacturer(Y) to 'X'. 'X' imports from Y and pays the customs duties (on the value declared for customs purpose) and also subsequently recovers from 'Y' lateron. 'X' also avails CENVAT credit of CVD+Cess paid while importing the components. 'X' charges service tax only on the service charges from the customer, and the components charges are also not charged from the customer.
here i would like to have clarification on the following aspects:
1. whether CENVAT credit is justified when 'X' is getting reimbursement from 'Y'?
2. as per sec 67 of Finance ACt,whether the cost of free supply components are to be added to the taxable value and charge service tax on the total component+service charge ?
pls provide me the clarification on the above queries.
Sanjay Jack Barde
23 June 2011 at 12:38
I purchased a flat (resale) in Pune in Sept 2007.
The society members have now received the first property tax bill for the period 2005 Oct to 2011 Nov.
The amount is quite high (87,000/- totally, working out to about 15,000/- per year)
My question is this -
As mentioned, I purchased the flat in Sept 2007. The previous owner had owned it from the time of completion by the builder till Sept 2007. Is he liable to pay the property tax from 2005 till the time I purchased it? Or is it solely my responsibility?
Thanks in advance.
A.R.JOSHI
23 June 2011 at 11:08
Hitherto clubs are charging service tax @ 10.3%on room rent received. With effect from 01.05.2011 service tax is payable by hotels on room rent by abetment of 50%.
Whether the clubs can avail the benefit of abetment of 50% w.e.f 01.05.2011 and pay tax @ 5.15%?
rammohan
23 June 2011 at 09:11
sir please clarify:
1. to avoid capital gains under sec.54F of IT act, can a person (X) construct a house by entering a joint venture agreement with another land owner(Y), when 'X' does not have a land in his name ?
2. if not allowed, whether 'X' can enter into a leese deed say for about 20/30 years with 'Y' and construct the house to take exemption from capital gains tax under Sec.54F of IT act?
income tax
Tax deducted & paid after due date as prescribed in chapter XVII for eg tax deducted on 31/3/10 deposited on 7 july 10 so the date of deposit is not as per chapter XVII.
NOW COMING TO SEC 40a(ia) THE ABOVE EXPENSES WILL NOT BE DISALLOWED B/C TDS DEPOSITED BEFORE DUE DATE U/S 139(1)
NOW WHETHER I HV TO REPORT ABOVE POINT IN PT NO 27 OF 3CD
iF NO THEN WHY