Vinayak Anikhindi
17 November 2013 at 08:55
I have purchased flat in pimple gurav the agreement registration date is april 2012 Builder has charged me service tax on total agreement cost @ 3.09% and Vat @ 1% however he has given the completion certificafte issued by corporation which is dated Mar 2012. Now he has asked service tax for year 2013 as well please brief me what is payble legally.
Will service tax provisions be applicable on the following online services:
1) To Acquire, Assign, Buy, Carry on, Deal in, Dispose off, Market, Procure, Protect, Purchase,Register, Sell, Trade for, Transfer, Use, Vend and Work for Domains Names; Service Marks & Names; Web Designing; Web Hosting; Web Intelligence; Web Management; Web Page Hosting; Web Server, Web Services and all other branches of Domains Registration and
Registry and to render IT Enabled Services.
2) To do business of Development and sale of Internet sites, Development of Computer Software, Portal Development, SSL certificates and Search engine optimization.
3) To provide services of online business promotion and commerce development.
Please reply.
Sreejith
16 November 2013 at 13:09
Respected Experts,
I want to know if any one provide cement to ready mix provider, Is excise duty is applicable on total ready mix he supplies or excluding the cost of cement.
Note: Since it is SEZ cement purchased with ED exemption.
Regards
Sreejith
neha
15 November 2013 at 12:28
Dear experts
I want to know that if a private company take over a partnership firm ( which is now availing excise exemptions)as a wholly owned subsidiary, will excise exemptions be continued to the company ?
Thanks.
If assessee is an individual and engaged in the business of financing purchase of goods on Hire Purchase, will Service Tax provisions apply on interest received in this?
Please reply.
As per Rule 6A of Service Tax Rules, as inserted w.e.f. 1-7-2012, a service shall be treated as export of service when all following conditions are satisfied –
(a) the provider of service is located in the taxable territory
(b) the recipient of service is located outside India
(c) the service is not in negative list of services
(d) the place of provision of the service is outside India
(e) the payment for such service has been received by the provider of service in convertible foreign exchange, and
(f) Service provider and receiver are not merely branches of same person.
All points are satisfied except pt (e) which is doubtful since the assessee is receiving the payment from its USA based client in US dollars but due to some complexities was unable to get in the money straight into India without registering itself there as a co. So, as an alternative, it used the services of an entity in USA to get the currency converted into Rupees and send the proceeds to India.
Will Service Tax provisions be applicable .i.e. will it be considered a export of service or not?
Please reply.
jatin
14 November 2013 at 18:31
Dear SIr/Madam,
we have purchased property in Mumbai in 2009 which was with ready possession with architect certificate & full OC is recd. in 2011 ,in agreement it is mention to pay MVAT,
1.Are we liable to pay tax as flat are in ready possession but full OC was not recd.if yes then @ what rate ?
2.Builder has not taken TIN no till date, are we have to make paymt if he has no TIN NO?
3. He also demanding Int. & penalty for delay in paymt , are we liable for the same?
Dear Sir,
I work for a Multinational company. I took housing loan in my city. But that house was left vacant as it is far from the city. I am not staying in it.neither I gave it for rent.
I am staying in another house which is 15 kilometers(from above house). Here I am paying rent.
Can I claim both housing loan and House rent paid for income tax exemptions (even though my rented house and my purchased house are in same city)?
pooja
11 November 2013 at 07:57
A contractor completes a work contract in three years. How will be his income assessed for purpose of income tax? Whether it will be yearwise? If yes how and can you please provide some case law on it?
Property tax on pagdi flats
Hello Sirs,
My father owns a pagdi based house since 1975 in Mulund Mumbai which is in the process of redevelopment. The transfer of ownership has been provided to the new builder. Now the orginal landlord are asking property tax from all the tenenats from year 1975. As he claims we did not provide any property tax then.
The landlord has divided the property tax equally among all the tenants (including himself as he stayed in the same bld)
- Is this ratio of 100% division fair as in pagdi we are just 70% owners of the flat. Hence are we not entitled to pay only 70% of property tax?
- Is property tax divided on per sq foot basis? or is it divided equally among tenants.
- Can we get a per flat estimate of the pending property tax directly from the goverment even if our flats were on pagdi and the landlord as not entered our agreements in the municipal office. How can we approch the municpal office to claim per flat property tax divisions?
Regards,
Glen