Nilesh Shah
22 December 2009 at 10:38
A partner wants to introduce his immovable property in the firm as his capital contribution.
What will be the amount of stamp duty payable either by the firm or the partner under the Bombay Stamp Act.
Thanks.
Sincerely,
Nilesh Shah.
Anonymous
22 December 2009 at 10:05
DEAR Experts of the forum,
An occupant of land/ (as a Koweldhar ? No written document) for a period of 12 years, have (any) right to Enter in to Agreement of Sale or GPA for the land to a third party without informing/ (notice to) the Pattedhar ? This case pertaining to State of A.P.
Thanking you all in advance.
Anonymous
21 December 2009 at 15:03
I HAD SOLD PROPERTY TO A PERSON NINE YEARS BACK,HE GIVE ME CHEQUE FOR CONSIDERATION.CHEQUE BECOME DISHONOURED . HE TAKEN LOAN FROM BANK ON SHARE CERTFICATES BASIS,I HAVE NOT RECEIVED CONSIDERATION ,WHAT TO DO?
DATTA SOLANKAR
21 December 2009 at 13:09
IF “A” PURCHASED A PROPERTY OUT OF HIS SAVING AND EXECUTE THE AGREEMENT IN THE NAME OF A AND B, IN SUCH CASES "B" WILL BECOE THE EQUAL OWNER IN THE PORPERTY IF NOT SPECIFIED OTHERWISE. WHEN B EXPRIES HIS SHARES IN THE PROPERTY WILL BE OWNED BY HIS LEGAL HEIRS.kindly give case law
Anandakumara MB
21 December 2009 at 11:13
What are the points to be prooved to vocate the injunction over the property. The injunction granted by the civil Judge (Jr div) to the mortgagee.
1. Property was mortgaged over 60 yrs ago.
2. Error RTC was presented to court by Mortgagee to get the injunction.
3. POssession was retained by the Mortgagor till today.
4. The same property was mortgaged to Co-operatice society by the Nortgagor.
5. The mortgage original deed is Not availabel by anybody.
Please give the technical ground to vocate the injunction.
debasis roy
21 December 2009 at 11:06
i made a contract with a person to buy timber, and the contract was made on plain paper with revenue stamps .now the person denies to supply the timber as well as my money.can i file a suit against him? and recover my money?
rudresh
20 December 2009 at 18:23
Hi All,
I am planning to buy a plot,the owner has a GPA registration on the plot and he will be making a sale deed on the plot with me. Can i know if this is legal and what all the consequences can come in future/precautions to be taken while purchasing.
Thanks
Anonymous
20 December 2009 at 13:12
ple can you guide me, my father passed away recently and my brother has started taking over everything since one flat is already in his name and other is in my moms name, i am not sure what way i can get my share of property and assets. he is elder but is closing down all the fd and accounts n transferring everything in his own name n my mom cant do anything thing pls advise.
its very urgent
Anonymous
20 December 2009 at 07:43
Open agricultural land,tenant"T"(Entry is in the 'Akraman dhar'column, for a period of 10 yrs.)of the land; Sells( not through the Register document) the same to "X".Some how "X" manages in Tahsildar office to enter his name in the'Akraman dhar' column(period 1989-1991).
Tenant"T", dead long back.But the lands are in the position of Mr."X" even to day.
But all through these years(Even, As on today i.e.20-12-2009), the pattedhar(OWNER'S) column is carrying the name of actual pattedhar(but for the above period).
Can i approach the Land Grabbing Court for JUSTICE ? Am from state of A.P.
Same time Kindly elucidate me What is meant by:(1) TITLE (2)Ownership and (3)Lawful possession.
Thanking you all in advance with a request to respond at the earliest PLEASE!
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Joint Family Property Share
Dear Sir's,
We are a christian joint family. There were six childrens for my grandmother 3 males 3 females. All 3 men are expired (2 unmarried) and i am the eldest son's eldest son. 2 women are married and 1 unmarried is with me. I want to clarify if the 3 women can have equal share of the property which solely belongs to my grandmother and there is no will registered on the property, which is taken care by me.