SJ
18 May 2014 at 11:51
whether a statement of claim filed before the arbitrator without disclosing the authority to file the same is maintainable when the other party raises the objection ?
whether the respondent need to file the reply to the same,even when the signed copy of the same was not provided inspite of the objection?
SANGAMESWARA RAO DHUPAM
16 May 2014 at 18:47
Respected Sirs,
My Friend`s father has got some property by means of a Partition deed among his brothers. His father also purchased some property in his name out of joint family cash. His father and his two sons has got some property by means of a Gift from his mother. Now my friend`s father wants to make partition among himself and two sons and a daughter. My doubt is that whether the gift property can be brought into the present partition as joint family property, if a declaration to that effect is made in the partition and thus can it be divided into shares among the family members.
sonal
15 May 2014 at 21:37
I run a company.In our company we hire ppl for diffrent posts like sales,hr,etc. i want to know if i want to do agreement with some consultants for giving us ppl what the process?
what would be better option contract or MOU?
whats the diffrence between two? pls guide experts on these things
Thanks
Rajeev Ghoshal
15 May 2014 at 10:44
Dear Team,
For the complete scenario i would like to describe in point wise -
1) My landlord has applied for a "Development Authority" quarter and got this with INR - 25,000/- cash and INR - 125/- month installment for 20 years in the year of 1985 (But the Registry was not done).
2) We took his quarter in rent 6 years ago approx.
3) After this we would like to ask him for sell this property to us. and he has ready to sell this only for 50,000 rs.
Now the scenario is, why he is ready to sell with a lowest price? because we were ready to pay his all debt which was -
a) Development Authority pending installment - 80,000/-
b) Electricity bill pending - 2,80,000/-
c) Water and sewer tax and bill pending - 40,000/-
d) House tax - 20,000/-
Before paying these debt and pending bill we have made a Indemnity bond/Agreement (Along with the photograph of seller and buyer in 5000/- Stamp paper notarized and signed by the collector and advocates)where it is clearly mention that he is selling this quarter to us with 50,000/- rs and now is the owner of this house and he can pay all my debts.
In this agreement it has been mention that there is 1 year of time where the owner can come and do the formality of registry for himself and for renter also. If the buyer will not come for registry in any how, then it can be done by court itself.
Now, we have done all the payments and some re-innovations at the house on behalf of that.
From last year to till date we are continuous asking him to came and do the registry for himself so that we can do the registry for us also, but he is not ready to come.
My question is Now what we have to do? and can we go to the court and file a case on behalf of that agreement??
This agreement have any power??
ankur jain
15 May 2014 at 09:28
Sir,
My name is ankur. meri cast jain hai or mai minority certificate banwana chahta hu is ke liye mujhe kya karna chaiye.
Abhishek Jhagarawat
14 May 2014 at 20:14
Dear Experts,
Please send me the format for preparing the addendum to the existing Trust Deed, wherein all the Trustees of a Gratuity Trust has been changed.
With Best Regards,
Abhishek Jhagarawat
Brijesh Goyal
14 May 2014 at 16:55
Dear Sir/madam,
Kindly,Provide your valuable advise for which I have been always thankful.
-Is it mandatory OR good for future to change wife's surname to surname of Husband after her marriage.
-If one wants to change,will marriage certificate work to be a proof for change in Voting card,D.L.,PAN etc of wife.
-If husband has no surname in his ID proofs etc,can wife have/change to surname of husband in this case.
(If husband gets his surname added to his name,is Gazette notification mandatory or Affidavit and information in news paper will do.)
Thanks
vicky kumar
12 May 2014 at 17:59
Respected Sir/Madam,
My relative(male) took many loans over the years from money lenders and friends, which, due to high interest, he could not pay, and the loan sumed up-to 1.5cr. He gave blank signed cheque to many. Unable to pay the loan he ran with his family to someplace no one knows as advised by the lawyer.He has police case on him and the blank cheque he gave came back as there was no money in the account. The lawyer/relative has kept a IP case in court(Don't know what it is, all I know is if you can't pay the loan with all your property and salary the court grands you a option not to pay). But its been 2 years but the numbering didn't come till now, the lawyer keeps telling 2 months, and extend the date( I don't mean any offence to the lawyer). And he says you don't have to come to the court, I will see everything, after the numbering comes, in 2-3 years the court will grant the case in your favor.IS IT POSSIBLE???. His daughter is studying in a different state, Loan people said they will take the money from her after her studies as her father used her studies as a reason for loan(and maybe took loan on her name, I don't know), SHOULD SHE BE IN CONTACT WITH HER PARENTS, loan people already know where she studies and came to her for her father location but she didn't tell them and booked a police case and they went away. DOES THE DAUGHTER HAS TO PAY THE LOAN??. WHAT CAN SHE DO NOW SO THAT SHE WONT GET IN ANY TROUBLE. it will take 3 yrs to complete her studies. WHAT SHOULD SHE DO SO THAT NO TROUBLE COMES TO HER. Please reply soon.
THANK YOU...
Vipul
11 May 2014 at 09:58
I have bought a dda flat (leased)property. This property is sold 6 - 7 times on GPA and Agreement to sale. Now i want to make this property free hold. When i saw all the GPA and Agreement to sale i found that one of the GPA and Agreement to Sale have some problem.
Third no of person sold the property and transfer his GPA and "Agreement to sale" to husband and wife.
GPA made on wife name and agreement to sale was on Husband name in 1993. After that husband had sold the property and transfer all the document to next party and next party sold property to us and transfer all the document with our name. We have bought this property 10 year back.
Now my question is:
1) Who have right to sold the property (GPA holder or the person who have agreement to sale).
2) if only GPA holder have this right what should i do now to make my property register as free hold.
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Finance business registration
I would like to start a finance business which would give financial advises to its members and its a paid service and we also would like offer interest free short term small loans to our customers as a add-on service.I'm from Bangalore .Kindly guide me about what all paper work is required for this business.I'm also ready to take services from any professionals.
Thanks
Chandrakanth