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Querist : Anonymous (Querist) 14 January 2011 This query is : Resolved
Ashok intentionally and flasely leads Aish to believe that certain land belongs to Ashok and therby induces Aish to buy and pay for it. Later the land becomes the property of Ashok and Ashok seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that at the time of sale, he had no title. Can he be allowed to prove his want of title ?

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Kirti Kar Tripathi (Expert) 15 January 2011
Yes, he is bound to hand over, the property. The principle of estoppel will apply in this case. He can not get set aside the sale on the ground that at the time of sale, he had no title at the time of sale.

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