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duplicate thread, deleted.
My employer wants me to sign an agreement which has a stipulation that " The X shall be solely liable for the payment of past, present and future central, state and local levies, direct and indirect taxes, duties if any..."
Q. How do I avoid liability for PAST transactions? Is there any section or provision under contract Act which can come to my aid. That such a clause/ stipulation if incororated wrt past liability which has not culminated would become void because of uncertainity etc.
dear sir
i have one old flat.. i want to sale this ..
but in our flat scheme.. any member does not have sale deed. major member at time of booking only pay some amount and balance on monthly installment.
after 20 year.. still we didi not get dastavje. or proerpty document. builder died.. not contactable..
now i want to sale this ,, but due to loan not possible and no document, i can not able to sale proerply
so plz help in this issue..
Please inform whether the fees waiver granted to Teacher's children is taxable under Income Tax Act as perquisite in the hands of Teacher and is there any limit on the no. of children. What is the amount to be added for the purpose of Tax.
Similarly whether the fees waiver granted to poor children is taxable in the hands of their parents.
Are there any cases decided on the issue.
RTI Application of mine did not get dismissed. On the contrary. The judge who took reply from OP after 90 days told that he will transfer my case as I pointed finger at him through RTI query.
He said that if he transfers the case to some other court, nobody will decide my case.
He took from me forcibly in writing a letter of apology.
Later two goons took me and my wife forcibly to the registrar DCDRF room where I was made to sign forcibly that I am withdrawing my RTI application. They not only took my sign and also took my wife sign and gave back my IPO.
Now what to do?
Dear Experts,
Kindly suggest me your opinion in the below case. I would like to know the merit of "B". Thank you.
CASE HISTORY :
“A” sold immovable property of agricultural land survey no. 1, 2 and 3 to “B” through a valid registered sale deed in the year of 1983, in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
Later on 1991, by undue threaten force by “A”, “B” agreed to sell the same immovable property to “C” (by threaten of “A” & “C” together). While drafting the sale deed “C” dictated the document writer to mention survey numbers as 1, 2 and 4 (mentioned no.4 instead of actual no.3), and full sale consideration was received by “A” (third party) and the same sale deed was registered with SRO, by signing “A” as 1st party seller & “B” as 2nd parity seller.
FACTS OF CASE :
1. While drafting sale deed, “C” mentioned “A” as first party to the sale deed, signed and registered document accordingly. “B” (legal owner) also signed on registered sale deed as 2nd party.
2. As per registered sale deed, complete consideration received by “A” (ex-owner alone), a third party where he has no legal rights on property.
3. In the said sale deed, none of the sellers have legal rights to sell on survey no.4. “C” wrongly mentioned survey no.3 boundaries to survey no.4 and got it registered with Sub-Registrar (survey no.3 not sold).
4. By fabricating documents and bribing to Tahsildhar office staff, “C” got mutation on survey no.3 (which is not legally sold & not registered in favor of “C”) instead of survey no.4.
5. From 1983 to upto date “B” having EC on his name for survey no.3 along with sale deed. But “C” is having illegal possession of the immovable property.
6. Tahsildhar office staff given endorsement to “B” to approach Civil Court when “B” applied for mutation & pattadar passbook on his favor for survey no.3 (which is illegally recorded on “C” name in revenue records now).
7. With corruption, “C” got mutation and pattadhar pass book from Tahsildhar office without having registered sale deed / title deed for survey no.3.
8. Tahsildhar not verifying the title documents and not doing legal act. He simply endorsing “B” to file a civil suit on “C”. They have given illegal mutation & pattadhar passbook to “C”, by considering “C”s illegal possession.
NOW THE QUESTIONS ARE :
a) Can “B” file a suit for NULL & VOID Contract case for entire sale deed which got registered in favor of “C” (i.e. for survey no.1, 2 and 4) in the year 1991 (around 26 years now), based on the ground that no consideration received by “B”, and “A” have no legal rights to sign the sale deed as 1st party seller & to receive entire sale consideration alone from “C”? If yes/no, under which Act & Sections/Provisions?
b) Can “B” file a case to get transfer mutation & pattadhar passbook in his favor for survey no.3 for which he have update of EC & sale deed in his favor (after 35 years from the date of registration)? If yes/no, under which Act & Sections/Provisions?
c) Can “B” file a private complaint to get the property into his possession which is almost 26years under illegal possession of “C”? If yes/no, under which Act & Sections/Provisions?
d) Is there any supporting case laws for all of the above situations?
e) Is there any other legal remedies in this case in favour of “B”?.
My family members are share holders of a pvt ltd cinema theater company can we buy this property and demolish the theatre for construction of new project
Dear Team
Can a Catholic Church or Dioceses acquire land in Mumbai or Palghar ( Specifically) for use of burial or cemetery purpose under their Trust name without violating Indian law and under proper legal process.
Please suggest your expert comments and right guidelines towards this propose .
Thanks & Regards
Biju Vakkachan
Lessee not vacating property after 25years lease
Deleted due to duplicate thread.