Dear All
Suppose X Co. purchase from Y Co where he pay 100(Cost) + 5 (Vat) = 105, and Sell to A Co. and avail the Vat Input Credit but in the time of assesment X co. come to know that Y Co. has not paid vat amount to tax authortiy then in this situtaion vat input disallowed to X co.? plz give your valuable information with section and case.
I have got a residential house from my mother under will 2 years back. Now i want to sale it. Whether the gain would be short term or period of house held by my mother would be included in my period of holding and it would be a Long term. If it is short term can i get exemption u/s 54
WHAT WILL BE INCOME TAX & TDS TREATMENT ON AMOUNT PAID TO ANY ORGANISATION IN OTHER COUNTRY FOR SURRENDERING USE OF A TRADE MARK APPLIED FOR REGISTRATION BY HIM, SINCE WE DO NOT WANT HIM TO USE THAT TRADE MARK IN HIS COUNTRY?
Sir i want to know about TDS on interest, we have received 200000/- from dinesh as a loan @ 12% PA Interest & Amt. Recieved agai. chq. no 440268, when we give the loan amt. we deduct tds on Interest, this process in is also applied in case of bank loan ?
I quit the organisation on 10 May 2010. The Gratuity Act had been amended and stated that the cap had been raised from Rs. 3.5 Lacs to Rs 10 Lacs. However, as this had not been passed by the Parliament, the approach was that the payout would be actual (subject to the cap of Rs. 10 lacs) but the amount more than Rs 3.5 Lacs would be taxable.
The Grauity Amendment was passed by the Parliament and came into effect from 24 May 2010.
Now, my company is saying that since I quit before 24 May, the payment that they will make now will be taxable (as was the rule till 24th May).
Pls confirm what should be the right approach
I want to know who is required to file monthly vat return as per new notification on Form Vat 16 a person whose net tax liability is Rs. 2Lacs after adjusting ITC or a person whose gross tax lability is Rs. 2 Lacs before adjusting ITC
What Is Intimation U/S 143 (1) and whether I need to do anything if it shows Nil Demand.
Dear Expert
Kindly share your views in the following matter.
What is actually entry tax and when it is leveable
My query relates to when service tax liablity arisess. At the time of issuing the bill/ invoice to the party or at the time when payment is received? Earlier we deposit the tax when we receive the payment only but now some people say it shud be on accrual basis not on receipt basis. What is the exact legal standing on this issue.
Return in Saral II (ITR-1)
ITO not accepting saral-II i.e. ITR-1 for the Income from other sources only. He is stating for filing ITR-1, you must have some income from salary also, otherwise filr ITR-2. Is he right. But in instructions with ITR-1, it is clearly mentioned that there is no such binding. Advice.