My client runs a business and has been paying household expenses from the business cash for years. He has been handing over the cash to another family member who would go and make all payments and keep the receipts. Now the other family member says that just because she has the receipts, she has made the payment and the same is now recoverable as debt from my client. How should I fight my case to show to the Court that just because a person has receipts of a sum paid does not mean he or she has paid it and especially when it is family matters where these matters are run on trust of each other.
Does anybody reckon any authority on the same?
I also have acount books of my client which are partially entered and have about 20 corroborating entries which show that he had entered the out going cash in his buiness book.
