this scenario pertains to a Hindu family.
The elder father and mother both come from modest-to-poor backgrounds, with no inheritance from either side
father's income can barely make ends meet, let alone leave savings to acquire property
mother has never worked for wages
They have a son and 2 daughters. One daughter gets married very young and leaves the house (to live in a different city altogether), the other daughter is unmarried for quite long, has a modest income (none enough to buy assets) and lives in the house.
The son gets a college degree, starts working when he is barely 20, for about 5 years in India, and then goes abroad to work. He works there for 2 decades. Several years after he starts working abroad, through his remittances, a flat is bought in India, but the mother is named as the titleholder. (It is sold some years later, as mentioned below).
Question #1 : Is this flat legally admissible as a joint family property?
Some years later, the son, after more years of overseas work and greater savings, comes to India, and buys a plot of land and builds a house. The house is bought with his additional savings, pooled with the proceeds of liquidating the earlier flat mentioned above. This time, he gets the title established in his name, not in his mother's name.
Question #2: Can this house be claimed by the daughters and mother and father as a joint family property?
Background for question #3:
Around the time he buys the (second) house, he gets married. The couple mostly live abroad and visit India only for holidays. When they visit India one time, the son is hit with a terminal illness and dies after about a year.
He writes no will, and they have no childern. Mother and wife are alive, and are class 1 heirs according to Hindu law of intestate succession.
Question# 3: Is there a credible case for the daughters to posture the house as a joint family property and thereby dilute any share for the widow?
Much appreciate your insights!