I am a 30 year old guy and as my name suggests, I am stuck in a loveless and bitter marriage and am contemplating divorce on grounds of emotial abuse. But I am being held back by social obligations and an incident of me hitting my wife, which I am afraid will go against my case.
To brief you, ours is an arranged marriage of 1 year before which we had a long and rough courtship period of 1 year. Before marriage, my wife and I had an argument regarding her job which almost broke off the relationship but it was saved by her verbal commitment to me to comply with my wishes.
Not to go into much details, I just wish to know how will my case stand given the facts that
1) she made a verbal commitment to me which she later backed out off and denied completely and I have no proof for that.
2) she had falsely accused my family of demanding and her mother had verbally insulted my family before marriage but we decided to ignore that.
3) 3 months into marriage my wife and I had a major fight that ended up in me hitting her.
4) although the matter didn't escalate outside our home (we live with my parents and brother and his family) at that time, but later when i brought up the matter of her job and her earlier commitment she used emotional twisting and the hitting incident to involve her parents who then verbally abused me and my family and denied and went back on her earlier commitment.
I am stuck in this situation because I know at some time in the past I had committed a legal error of physical abuse but just want to know how much weightage will that take in an already feeble case. I know it is feeble because I have no proofs and all commitments/insults were verbal. The only strong point I see in my case is that my wife's father's verbal abuse was very acute and included physical threats to me and my family.
Also, if she continues to use that single incident to emotionally abuse me, is there any legal help that I can seek?