Anuj Sharma 18 May 2024
In 60 marlas We are 3 share holder equally.
There are 2 khsras ,each khsra is of 30 marlas
Share holder A is in khana kast and possession over all 60 marlas means in both khasras
Share holder B sells his 1/3 share (10marla) from khsra 1
Later share holder A sells 1/2 share in khasra 1 using khana kast in year 2000 but mutation didnt get sactioned.
Is it valid sale deed or not?
Can A sell extent to his share ?
T. Kalaiselvan, Advocate (Advocate) 18 May 2024
If the property has been divided among the shareholders then there is no legal infirmity by selling his share by one of the shreholders.
However if it is undivided then he cannot sell a particular share of property.
The aggrieved party can approach court with a suit for partition.
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