Hi,
For my resale flat, the buyer paid all white money to me; but at the time of registration the sale deed was made at the government rates which is much lower (almost half of the agreement amount what he paid).
Is this OK?
If it's OK how do I account for the extra money that came as the sale deed is only for half the amount. While filing my taxes what proof do I show that I received the full amount from the buyer. I didn't even realize this while signing on the sale deed 
I have a sale agreement (which is not registered) but says the full amount that was paid to me. Will this suffice for IT purposes to prove where I got the money from?
Please help.
thanks so much in anticipation for your replies.
