I'm staying in current property for last 20 years. This property was purchased by my father and in terms of documents I just have agreement to sell. My father expired 17 years ago. I am not sure if mutation has been done but I am getting house-tax bills in the name of my mother as she had applied for mutation but I couldn't find any document affirming that. (As far as I know, mutation process was not complete due to some partial payment of dues). Now I have 2 options: (1) Apply for mutation freshly (2) Use RTI to get file opened and complete that process.
Since mutation was applied in 89, I doubt if RTI will be useful. I've 2 queries:
Q1. Which of aforesaid option should I go for?
Q2. Will mutation be sufficient enough for title? I do not have sale deed neither is builder alive so registry seems not doable.