Sir exactly the point you have converted. The Father X had the sole property and no other property while making the will so he was naturally to mention of that property only. Now when that property is sold making his sons part sellers, and replacing a new property out of sale proceeds, where does the intentions change or dispute ?
Earlier also X hand single property, presently also X is having the sole property, just that the property details have changed. How does that go point to a change of mind or intentions not to act according to the old will ?
Also the earlier sold property Father 'X' got from his mother and X's father through succession and was not X's self acquired. X and his living mother jointly wrote a will in name of the sons. Do this fact play some role please guide..
Please provide your inputs