Dear People,
Good Day. I want to buy a plot of 1500 sq ft from a seller "X",, "X" has bought this property from "Y" who had a GPA with "Z" (original seller), the sale deed is directly registered from "Z" to "X".. "Y"'s intention in this case would have been to make a profit and therefore he didn't register it in him name as he has to pay regn charges. In this case which is quite normal is bangalore, is it ok to buy the property from "X",, request humbly to reply, thanks.
With regards
Rafi