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upendra nath kosa   31 October 2018

IPC u/s 378 theft

A is the paramour of z's wife. She gives a valuable property, which A knowns to belong to her husband Z, and to be such property as she has no authority from Z to give. If A takes the property dishonesty, he commits theft.
Sir please give me answer???


 4 Replies

Dr J C Vashista (Lawyer)     01 November 2018

What is the opinion / advise of your tutor ?

TGK REDDI   02 November 2018

Both the above Replies are not on.

Experts are behaving as if it's a burden for them to post their Replies.

No.    It's not mandatory to post a Reply.    It's not mandatory to join LCI.

Experts are supposed to be happy in posting Replies and are supposed to receive criticism cheerfully.     They're not supposed to write rudely.

If they don't like acadamic queries and anonymous Questioners, let them be silent.    They have no business to drive them back.

There're many members who're happy to analyze fictitious legal problems for developing legal knowledge.

ANUJ KR SINGH   13 August 2019

A takes away B's scooter without informing him with a view to follow a criminal who had just run away after committing a crime. is it theft or not? if so what could be the reason or case law if any.

Rajinder Goyal   23 October 2020

Hey,  

This is an illustration from IPC. It's not clear what you want to know. I hope you want to understand the illustration. As the facts are already clear, the reason for the conviction of A is his intention. If he has not known about the fact that property belonged to Z and Z's wife has no authority over it, he would not have been liable but despite knowing this fact he took the property dishonestly so he is liable. 

Hope this helps!


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