I have purchased a immovable property 3 years back, but came to know recently that the property has legal heirs, I want to take their consent / no objection for the already registered transaction ,which type of document should be done and whether it should be registered or notary.
What do you mean by "It was purchased in heirs grand father name then it was transfer to father and then to heir on father's death"?
Please post simple facts; try to avoid assumptions are presumptions.
Please note that an ancestral property is a property acquired by one's great grandfather which has been passed down from generation to generation (grandfather and father) up to the present generation without being divided or partitioned. The concept of ancestral property is restricted Hindus. It is of no application in the case of Christians and Muslims.
For example, "A" purchased property he transfered it to is son "B" by partition/division , on death of "B" property got transfer to legal heir "C" ,I have purchased property from "C" ,and now "C" son(age 30-35)says he will claim in property sold to me under anchestor property .can he claim? I am purchaser(muslim) and seller "C" is Hindu.