A wife inherits a property by virtue of property purchased by her husband on her name (she does have no earning or income as she is not employed and doesn't have any source of income to purchase a property). After few years of her husband demise, she decides to sell off the property and decides to pay nothing to his 2 sons and 2 daughters. Does any law prevent her to sell this property until a consent for selling of property is granted by her children ?? If she has already sold off the property , can any one of her children make claim for his/or her 1/5th portion (on pro-rata calculation considering mother+4 childrens) ? what happen to party who purchased this property and not aware about no legal consent among mother & children to sell property ??
regards
kamnesh
