one of my clinet and his brother made a family settlement in 1981, it has been recorded on paper, some portion of property were allocated to my client and this portion was bigger in terms of its disadvantageous position. subsequently my client sold his 50% rights in the property with possession to this bigger portion to the third party. can he do so ?
Does a family settlement recorded in such manner with delivery of acual and exclusive possession tantamounts to deemed partition ? if yes then please tell me latest case law ?
if comfortable then anybody can reply me on my email i.d firstname.lastname@example.org
Thanks & Regards,