One of my close relatives-X, father Y's land 4 acres had been taken by the housing board to construct the collector office in TN. The X, i.e son went to court and got back 2 acres land and rest of the 2 acres land was acquired by the housing board and paid the compensation to X for the 2 acres. Now the X is telling that 2 acres are not ancestoral property and it is aquired property of X and do not give the lands as per the right of his children and started selling and sold the lands
Question:
1.Is the X claim that ancestoral property to aquired property is right?
2.Is such sale by X is valid
3.If it is becoming aqiuired property, under what circumstances, it shall become aquired property?
3.How generally the ancestoral property shall become aquired property?
Thanks and regards
Bala C