Respected Experts,
I'm planning to purchase one property. upon perusal of documents I found that in 1985 the registered owner executed unregistered GPA in favor of Mr. A. and received entire sale consideration amount.
In 1996 Mr. A sold the property by executing unregistered GPA to Mr. B and received the sale consideration amount.
In 2005 Mr. B sold the property by executing registered sale deed in favor of Mr. C.
Now Mr. C is selling the property and I'm interested to purchase this property..
when I asked the seller (Mr.C) about the GPAs he was like all of the GPA holders have received the entire sale consideration and notary affidavit mentions about the sale...
my query to the respected experts is whether I can go ahead with the purchase?
Since from begining sale transactions took place through unregistered GPA which is not valid in eye of law .No valid title ( ownership ) of property passed to A & B so they couldn't furher legally transfer it to C .in my opinion you should leave the idea to purchase said property.
