Dear All, can you plz provide an elaborate insight related to section 168 of the ipc? I want to know that for engagement in trade, whether the trade or business has to be owned by such public servant or mere engagement or participation in a business owned by family member of such public servant is enough to bring a charge under sec 168 ipc. thanks n regards.
Dear Mr.Prasad, Thanks for your reply. I have already searched google and also read it in 2 to 3 books but it is still not clear as to the trade or business must be owned by the public servant or not and also whether the mere engagement in the family business attracts section 168 ipc or the public servant has to sign the bills or invoices also. thanks again