Fardin Ahmed (Manager) 08 October 2012
My wife has disowned my son. Ggiven that the property is bought by me and is on my and my wife's name. My question is:
1. Does this mean that I have too disowned him automatically?
2. Can he claim the property whcih is on my name or my wife's name ?
3. What are the ways through which if I want I can exclude my son from inheritance or the claim on the property?
Thanks and Regards.
Hemant Agarwal (ha21@rediffmail.com Mumbai : 9820174108) 08 October 2012
1. Dis-owning a son / daughter requires legal documentary procedures, without which the disowning component is infructous. Hence both the parents have to follow the documentary procedures to disown the son, with proper reasonings / justifications.
2. The Son has equal rights on the share ratio of the property of the mother and father.
Keep Smiling .... Hemant Agarwal
Fardin Ahmed (Manager) 09 October 2012
My wife has disowned the son through the lawyer and given it in the newspaper also. I also heard if the father has bought the property from him own earning then no one has the right on it even the son, is that correct?
P.K.Haridasan (Advocate) 09 October 2012
Shariat law is always against exclusion. No right on an immoveable property can be eliminated other than by a registered document.
All sons and daughters will inherit the property at the ratio of 2:1
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