suppose if supreme court or any High court while deciding a case overrule it's own principle by which the previous judgement was given and in new judgement in any other new (similar but not same to the previous) case another principle is imposed . Is it means that previous judgement become invalid automatically because of overruling the principle Or may be judgement? If no than why? If yes than the defendants in previous case will be entitled to claim compensation for wrong judgement of court?
that's ok if your not comfortable with..... yeah may be my question is not technically correct, I can demonstrate it with a example...... justice dy chandrachud by overruling his father's ruling strike down section 497 after so many years. That means court overturned it's own judgement. Now please take up my questions that ,it means the previous judgement was wrong ? And before overturning it's judgement the individuals who are effected by it or punished by under article 497 , will they entitled to claim compensation due to court's own wrong judgement?